Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis are the pathogens most commonly associated with acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis.
A productive cough that lasts at least three months and recurs for at least two years in a row qualifies as chronic bronchitis. There may be times when the cough or other symptoms of chronic bronchitis get worse.
The lining of your bronchial tubes, which transport air to and from your lungs, become inflamed when you have bronchitis. Bronchitis patients frequently cough up thicker mucus that may be colored. Chronic or acute bronchitis are both possible.
Acute bronchitis is a relatively common condition that frequently results from a cold or other respiratory illness. A persistent irritation or inflammation of the bronchial tube lining characterizes chronic bronchitis, a more dangerous illness that is frequently brought on by smoking.
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A 50-year-old man presents with increasing exertional dyspnea for the past 4 days. He has had a chronic cough for the past 3 years and attributes it to cigarette smoking. The cough had been productive of watery sputum, but it has changed to a yellowish color over the past week. He has no known allergies and reports no family history of asthma; on examination, he is wheezing. His temperature is 101F, PR- 105/min, BP- 136/86mmHg, and RR-30/min. Respiratory system examination reveals decreased chest wall excursion. Auscultation reveals a prolonged expiratory phase with crepitations and generalized rhonchi. Chest X-ray (CXR) reveals irregular bronchovascular markings. Laboratory results reveal Hb 15 g/dl, WBC 12000/uL, platelets 300x10 9/l.
What are the pathogens most commonly associated with acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis?
a nurse performs an apgar assessment on a newborn at 1 minute with a score of 7 and at 5 minutes with a score of 10. what action should the nurse take?
A nurse performs an Apgar assessment on a newborn at 1 minute with a score of 7 and at 5 minutes with a score of 10.
What is an Apgar score?An Apgar score is measured at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. Scoring may continue at 5-minute intervals if the baby is in danger and needs CPR. An Apgar score is assigned to each newborn. The APGAR score can be completed by a nurse or labor support person. The Apgar score makes it feasible to assess the newborn’s transition to extrauterine life quickly. Waiting longer than 15 minutes between assessments would be unreasonable.
How is the Exam Conducted?The Apgar test is carried out by a doctor, midwife, or nurse. The physician examines the infants:
• Breathing effort
• The heartbeat
• Muscle tone Reflexes
• Skin color
A score of 0, 1, or 2 is assigned to each category depending on the observed circumstance.
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to therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?
The nurse must identify personal feelings about child abusers first.
Intervention in child maltreatment includes, for instance, the investigation of child abuse reports by state child protection agencies, clinical treatment of physical and psychological injuries, family counseling, self-help services, the provision of goods and services like homemaker or respite care, legal action against the perpetrator, and removing the child or the offender from the home.
Some people consider these therapy efforts to be a sort of tertiary prevention since they frequently aim to avoid more instances of child abuse as well as to lessen the detrimental effects of those events on children and their families.
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Question correction:
To therapeutically relate to parents who are known to have maltreated their child, what must the nurse do first?
1 Develop a trusting relationship with the child.
2 Identify personal feelings about child abusers.
3 Recognize the emotional needs of the parents.
4 Gather information about the child's home environment
the nurse is monitoring a client with hypertension who is taking propranolol. which assessment finding indicates a potential adverse complication associated with this medication?
Blurred vision and confusion are the symptoms which indicates a potential adverse complication associated with the propranolol medication.
What is Hypertension?This is referred to a type of medical condition which is characterized by the blood pressure being too high as result of different factors such as obesity etc.
One of the medications which is used to treat it is referred to as propranolol and it helps to lower it. In cases where the patient experiences blurred vision and confusion then it means a potential adverse complication associated with it and is therefore referred to as the most appropriate choice.
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associated factors with uremic pruritus in chronic hemodialysis patients: a single-center observational study
A person whose kidneys are not functioning correctly undergoes hemodialysis, also known as Hemodialysis or simply dialysis, to filter their blood.
The median post-dialysis recovery time (DRT) for people receiving conventional HD is normally between two and four hours, with about 25% reporting a recovery time of more than six hours.
While patients taking a daily or nightly dose of HD report a noticeably quicker recovery time, 6,7.
What is Chronic hemodialysis ?Children with chronic renal failure are treated with hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis on an ongoing basis. Children who have consumed certain toxins (poisons) that need to be immediately eliminated from the body are also treated with acute hemodialysis.
Although patients should expect to remain on dialysis for 5 to 10 years on average, many have successfully maintained their health for 20 or even 30 years. Consult your medical staff for advice on how to look after your health while undergoing dialysis.
According to research by Montaseri et al., HD patients have overall 1-, 2-, 3-, and 5-year survival rates of 75%, 63%, 50%, and 23%, respectively. [8] Additionally, Beladi Mousavi et al. revealed that patient survival rates were 89.2%, 69.2%, and 46.8%, respectively, at 1, 3, and 5 years.
What is Uremic pruritus ?Up to half of all ESRD patients on dialysis develop the common and painful symptom known as uremic pruritus (UP)1,2. It is frequently defined as the recurrence of itch on a regular or almost daily basis without the presence of main dermatologic symptoms.
Uraemia-related disorders (especially those involving the metabolism of calcium, phosphorus, and parathyroid hormones), the buildup of uraemic toxins, systemic inflammation, cutaneous xerosis, and common co-morbidities such diabetes mellitus and viral hepatitis are possible triggers.
For severe uraemic pruritus that has not responded to traditional therapies, UVB phototherapy is the basis of treatment. Other therapies that have reportedly been effective for some patients include: modest doses of pregabalin with gabapentin (e.g. 100–300 mg gabapentin, three times weekly) Nalfurafine (opioid agonist)
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the nurse is admitting a client who just had a bronchoscopy. which assessment should be the nurse's priority?
The assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is Swallow reflex
Swallow reflex is a healthcare process which aids to propel swallowing food bolus from the oral cavity to the esophagus without aspiration of food into the airways.
BronchoscopyIn the healthcare management, bronchoscopy is one of the procedures or technique which is used to view the airways deep inside respiratory system.
This bronchoscopy is usually, frequently and most of the time carried out in order to diagnose health conditions within the respiratory system and for therapeutic purposes
So therefore, the assessment which would be the nurse's priority for a admitted who just had a bronchoscopy simply is swallow reflex
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a nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 500 mg im to a client. the nurse reconstitutes a 500 mg vial of cefazolin powder to obtain a final concentration of cefazolin 330 mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
The nurse should administer 1.51ml(rounding off 2 ml)
In many different areas of the body, cefazolin is used to treat bacterial infections. In order to avoid infections, this medication is also administered before to several types of surgery. Cefazolin is a member of the cephalosporin antibiotics drug class. It functions by eradicating germs or stopping their development.By attaching to penicillin-binding proteins, cefazolin prevents the creation of the cell wall, which halts the production of peptidoglycans. Bacterial proteins called penicillin-binding proteins aid in catalyzing the last steps of peptidoglycan production, which is necessary to preserve the cell wall.It is therapeutically efficient against infections brought on by gram-positive staphylococci and streptococci species.To know more about cephalosporin visit:
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Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? Question 4 options: a) Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases c) A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care d) Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
The criteria required for becoming licensed and employed as an EMT is: (b) Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
EMT is the abbreviation for Emergency Medical Technician. Their first priority is to transport the patient to the nearest hospital at the earliest while providing care on the way. They are also trained with certain skills and techniques to deal with emergency and life-threatening situations.
Communicable diseases are those that can easily spread from one person to another. This can happen by physical contact with the patient, contact with the patient's personal belongings, through infected surfaces or inhaling the infected droplets. Therefore, an EMT needs to be immunized against such diseases for his as well as the patient's safety.
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As a veterinarian, if you suspect an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, whom should you contact?
Answer:
Possibly, an expert vet, or a person who can heal and knows what to do in that situation.
If a veterinarian suspects an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, they should contact the appropriate fish health authority or agency.
If a veterinarian suspects an unusual outbreak of disease in a fish population, they should contact the appropriate fish health authority or agency. This could be the state or federal fish and wildlife agency, or the state or federal department of agriculture.
These organizations have the expertise and resources to investigate and address the outbreak, and may work in partnership with veterinarians to conduct diagnostic testing, implement disease control measures, and provide guidance on managing the outbreak.
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operative report preoperative diagnosis:prolapsed vitreous in anterior chamber with corneal edema postoperative diagnosis:same operation performed:anterior vitrectomy the patient is a 72-year-old woman who approximately 10 months ago underwent cataract surgery with a yag laser capsulotomy, developed corneal edema and required a corneal transplant. the patient has done well. over the last few weeks, she developed posterior vitreous detachment with vitreous prolapse to the opening in the posterior capsule with vitreous into the anterior chamber with corneal touch and adhesion to the graft host junction and early corneal edema. the patient is admitted for anterior vitrectomy. procedure: the patient was prepped and draped in the usual manner after first undergoing retrobulbar anesthetic. a lid speculum was inserted. an incision was made at approximately the 10 o’clock meridian 3 mm in length, 2 mm posterior to the limbus, and grooved forward into clear cornea with a 3.2 mm anterior chamber. an anterior vitrectomy was carried out, placing a visco-elastic substance in the anterior chamber to maintain it. a sinskey hook was used to sweep vitreous away from the corneal wound and this was removed with the disposable vitrectomy instrument. the patient’s pupil is noted to be round. there was no vitreous to the wound. the wound self-sealed without aqueous leak. cautery was used to close the conjunctiva. subconjunctival decadron and gentamicin was given. the patient tolerated the procedure well and was discharged to the recovery room in good condition. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?
The surgical diagnostic or diagnoses given to the patient prior to the surgical procedure are documented in the surgical operation note pre-operative diagnosis and serve as the justification for the surgery. According to the surgeon, the preoperative diagnosis is the one that will be verified during operation.
What is Preoperative diagnosis ?The period of time between the decision to have surgery and the start of the surgical procedure is known as the preoperative phase.
What is conjunctiva ?infection or inflammation of the inner eyelid and the outer ocular membrane.
Pink eye, also known as conjunctivitis, is an inflammation or irritation of the conjunctiva, which covers the white portion of the eye. Allergies or a bacterial or viral illness may be to blame. Contact with eye secretions from an infected person can spread conjunctivitis, which can be quite contagious.
Redness, itchiness, and eye tears are symptoms. Additionally, it may cause crusting or discharge around the eyes.If you have conjunctivitis, you should cease wearing contact lenses. Although it frequently gets well on its own, therapy might hasten the healing process. Antihistamines are effective in the treatment of allergic conjunctivitis. Antibiotic eye drops can be used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis.What is Retrobulbar anesthetic ?A retrobulbar block is a regional anesthetic nerve block that is administered in the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. The retrobulbar block is created by injecting local anesthetic into this region.
This method involves injecting local anesthetic into the retrobulbar space, which is the region behind the eyeball. By immobilizing cranial nerves II, III, and VI, this injection causes akinesia of the extraocular muscles and stops movement of the glob.
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a nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. what are the nurse's priority assessments of the child? select all that apply
A nurse in the pediatric clinic taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema prioritizes whether the child wears cotton clothing and tolerance to new food assessments of the child.
Children's eczema, a common allergy symptom, frequently connects to meals and clothing. Cotton clothing is a sign that the parents are aware of their child's allergy and are trying to lessen it. The ability to tolerate new foods indicates that a toddler has outgrown some food sensitivities. Eczema does not develop due to a lack of appetite. Eczema is a sign of allergies. However, it is not communicable.
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Which of the following is a part of contact precautions
Answer:
I don't see any options I can choose from. However, key components of contact precautions include patient placement, equipment management, patient transport, and visitor management.
Explanation:
when planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (cp), what is important for the nurse to consider?
When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
What is cerebral palsy?Cerebral palsy is a group of conditions that are characterized by the fact that the individual is unable to maintain movement and balance of his/her own body.
In conclusion, When planning long-term care for a 2-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP), it is important to consider that CP is not progressively degenerative.
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which subjective question(s) by the nurse assist in identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes? (select all that apply.)
Which subjective question(s) by the nurse assist in identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes? (Select all that apply.)
SPICES• S—sleep disorders
• P—Problems with eating or feeding
• I—Incontinence
• C—Confusion
• E—Evidence of falls
• S—Skin breakdown
It is well known that society as a whole is living longer as a result of better healthcare and living conditions.
Although it is a blessing to be able to survive into old age, there are some problems that the elderly encounter that we should all be more aware of.
Until we begin to age or see a loved one struggle, we frequently don’t pay attention to the needs of our ageing population.
But we can do more as a society to raise their standard of living. This article discusses the most pressing problems that older people face today, as well as how we can support them and provide them the chance to age with dignity.
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safiejko k, tarkowski r, koselak m, et al. robotic-assisted vs. standard laparoscopic surgery for rectal cancer resection: a systematic review and meta-analysis of 19,731 patients. cancers (basel). 2021;14(1):180.
In patients receiving curative surgery for rectal cancer, robotic-assisted surgery is anticipated to provide benefits over the traditional laparoscopic technique.
What is robotic-assisted surgery?
Robotic surgery, also known as robot-assisted surgery, enables medical professionals to carry out a variety of intricate treatments with greater accuracy, adaptability, and control than is feasible with traditional methods. Robotic surgery is frequently related to minimally invasive surgery, which involves operations done through small incisions.
It may also be employed sometimes during various types of open surgery. Compared to traditional approaches, surgeons who utilize the robotic system report that it improves precision, flexibility, and control throughout the surgery and gives them a better view of the spot.
Surgeons may carry out delicate and intricate treatments using robotic surgery that could be challenging or impossible with traditional techniques.
Therefore, Patients receiving curative surgery for rectal cancer are predicted to benefit more from robotic-assisted surgery than from the traditional laparoscopic technique.
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an emergency department nurse understands that a 110-lb (50-kg) recent stroke victim will receive at least the minimum dose of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa). what minimum dose will the client receive?
A stroke is a cerebrovascular event brought on by a disruption in the blood supply. A patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
What is a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator?A recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa) is the medication used for a person suffering from a stroke. It is a protein and prevents the formation of blood clots in the circulatory or another organ system.
It is found on the endothelial cells of the blood vessels and converts the plasminogen to plasmin protein to break the blood particle accumulation. A 50 kg person suffering from a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) must be administered 45 mg of t-pa.
Therefore, the patient must be administered 45 mg of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator.
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the nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-year-old child about techniques to promote medicine adherence. what instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? select all that apply.
The instructions that nurse should include in the teaching includes choosing the proper dosage form, completing the prescribed dose. usage of calibrated spoons for measuring liquid formulations.
What is medicine adherence?
Medicine adherence often refers to whether patients continue to take a prescribed medication as well as whether they take their prescriptions as directed (for example, twice daily). Thus, adherence and persistence are the two key principles that describe medication adherence behavior.
The nurse is teaching the mother of a 3-year-old child about techniques to promote medicine adherence. The instructions which should be included by the nurse in the teaching are:
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soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. uworld
Soreness in his mouth and has had intermittent episodes of a postprandial bloating sensation and diarrhea. This is probably Celiac disease – malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis) and autoimmune inflammation.
What is Celiac disease?Symptoms of celiac disease include autoimmune inflammation and malabsorption (diarrhea, anemia, glossitis).
It is a physiological reaction brought on by ingesting the gluten protein, which is found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Over time, the small intestine’s lining is damaged by the immune system’s reaction to consuming gluten, which can lead to health problems. In addition, it makes some nutrients more difficult to absorb (malabsorption). Demands a medical diagnosis.
As a rule, people experience diarrhea. Additional symptoms include osteoporosis, wind, bloating, and exhaustion. Low blood counts (anemia) are another. Many people don’t exhibit any symptoms.
People may experience:
Pain in the joints or the stomach.
Gastrointestinal: heartburn, indigestion, bloating, belching, diarrhoea, fatty stools, nausea, or vomiting
Body as a whole: fatigue, starvation, or bone loss
Among the problems with
• development is slow growth
• delayed puberty
• Cramping
• Itching
• lactose intolerance,
• Rashes
• weight loss are additional typical symptoms.
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a client with bladder cancer is receiving cisplatin and vincristine. the nurse plans care, knowing that which is the purpose of administering both of these medications?
When cells start making up the urinary bladder start to grow out of control is called Bladder cancer.
The bladder is a hollow organ in the lower pelvis. Its main function is to store urine.
What is Bladder cancer?
Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC) is also known as Urothelial carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer.Other types of bladder cancer can start in the bladder, but these are not common than Transistional cell carcinoma (TCC).Most bladder starts in the innermost lining of bladder.However, cancer might spread outside the bladder too.To learn more about Bladder cancer
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a client in her third trimester reports to the nurse shortness of breath when sleeping. the nurse informs the client that this is normal and occurs because the growing fetus puts pressure on the diaphragm. which measure should the nurse suggest to help alleviate this problem?
A client in her third trimester reports to the nurse shortness of breath when sleeping. the nurse informs the client that this is normal and occurs because the growing fetus puts pressure on the diaphragm. The measure the nurse should suggest to alleviate this problem is to use extra pillows.
Fetus is the offspring of an organism that grows inside the womb of the female. It is the stage after the embryo is developed. The stage begins after 8 weeks of fertilization and ends at the time of parturition.
Diaphragm is the muscle that majorly helps in respiration and also supports the lungs from below in the thoracic cavity. Upon inhalation, the muscle contracts, while it relaxes during exhalation.
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what are some self disclosures to that a counselor would not disclose to a client
Answer:
when practitioners discuss their own personal problems and hardships with their clients with no clinical rationale or purpose
Explanation:
which behaviors would the nurse expect the client to do during the working phase of a therapeutic relationship
The nurse would expect the client would do insight and incorporate alternative behaviors during the working phase of a therapeutic relationship.
What does therapeutic relationship mean?The relationship between a healthcare provider and a client or patient is referred to as a therapeutic relationship. It is the way a therapist and a client intend to interact and bring about positive change in the client.
There is a distinct beginning and finish to the therapeutic relationship. It advances via the aforementioned four stages: commitment, process, change, and termination.
What is a good therapeutic relationship?Mutual regard, trust, and concern. general agreement over the therapy's objectives and tasks. Cooperative decision-making. Participation of both parties in "the job" of the therapy. the capability of discussing "here-and-now" elements of one's relationships with others.
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while assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. what is indicated by this finding? select all that apply.
The finding indicates that the client is an (2) older adult, has (4) history of smoking, and has a (5) chronic lung disease.
Anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, measured from front to back, is less than the width of the chest measured from side to side (transverse diameter) No obvious abnormalities, such as a barrel chest, kyphosis, or scoliosis, should be present on the chest.
A barrel-shaped chest is indicated by the 1:1 ratio of the anteroposterior diameter to the transverse diameter of the chest. This is a defining trait of an elderly smoker with chronic lung disease. The lumbar curvature increases with lordosis.
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Question correction:
While assessing a client, a nurse finds that the ratio of the anteroposterior diameter and transverse diameter of the chest is 1:1. What is indicated by this finding? Select all that apply.
Client has lordosisClient is an older adultClient has osteoporosisClient has a history of smokingClient has chronic lung diseaseassociation of first primary cancer with risk of subsequent primary cancer among survivors of adult-onset cancers in the united states
The number of cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise, although there are few thorough studies on the likelihood that survivors of adult-onset cancers would get successive primary cancers (SPCs).
standardized incidence ratio (SIR) and standardized mortality ratio (SMR) of SPCs per 10,000 person-years in comparison to those anticipated in the general population.Several primary cancer types were significantly related with increased risk of acquiring and dying from an SPC among adult-onset cancer survivors in the United States when compared to the general population. Significant parts of the overall SPC incidence and death across all survivors were attributable to cancers linked to smoking or obesity, underscoring the significance of continuous surveillance and initiatives to stop new cancers among survivors.Cancer survivors who get new malignancies is expected to rise.
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which measure would the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan for a multiparous client who gave birth 24 hours ago and is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy for cystitis?
Emptying the bladder in every 2 to 4 hours while awake would be a way that the nurse could anticipate the problem.
What is cystitis?
It's an infection or inflammation of the urinary tract, including the bladder, brought on by a kind of bacterium known as Escherichia coli (E. coli). Urge to urinate, blood in urine, and burning during urination are the results of this.
A technique for the nurse to foresee the issue would be to have the patient empty their bladder every two to four hours while they are awake.
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the nurse is providing teaching to a client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. the nurse should explain to the client that which is true about this disorder?
The nurse should teach the client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder that the disorder is a mix of psychotic and mood disorder symptoms.
Schizoaffective disorder is a disorder consisting of varying symptoms like hallucinations, confusion, depression, etc. All the symptoms can either occur simultaneously or at different times. The treatment included is a combination of medications as well as therapy.
Mood disorder is the state of mind when the moods of a person are highly inconsistent. The person can become, angry or irritating at even the smallest thing. There are alterations of depressed and happy state. Bipolar disorder, Dysthymia, etc. are types of mood disorders.
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a resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor. your response to this should be .
A resident in your care tells you that he does not like his current physician and wishes to be seen by another doctor therefore your response should be to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter and is denoted as option A.
Who is a Physician?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who has the required degree and is involved in the non-surgical treatment of individuals thereby ensuring that their health is restored.
Every individual has the right to choose his physician which is why an individual who wants a change should be assisted by contacting social worker or RN so that new arrangements can be made.
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The options are:
A. to help the resident contact the social worker or RN for assistance in this matter
B. to gently tell the resident that the doctor has been assigned to him and he cannot change physicians without a legal procedure
C. to acknowledge the resident's concerns and suggest a different medical provider
D. to reassure the resident that his doctor is qualified and capable and encourage the resident to respect the doctor
the pediatric emergency room nurse recognizes that parents are often anxious about the treatment and prognosis of their child. which supportive statements would the nurse use when communicating with these parents? select all that apply.
Supportive statements such as "We understand that you are anxious.", "We will give frequent updates.", "We really want to provide your child with the best care possible.", and "If you have any concerns, please let us know." the nurse should use when communicating with those parents.
The medical staff members that spend the most time with patients and their families while they are in the hospital are nurses. Nurses are in charge of delivering care; doctors may treat. They give crucial emotional assistance in addition to medical care.
Nurses serve as hand-holders, cheerleaders, and fitness trainers. They are responsible for providing comfort to patients and assisting them through emotional difficulties. From the very first day to the very last, day and night, they are with their patients.
By empathizing with suffering patients, reassuring anxious patients, and inspiring hope in all of them, they provide emotional support for their patients.
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Question correction:
The pediatric emergency room nurse recognizes that parents are often anxious about the treatment and prognosis of their child. Which supportive statements would the nurse use when communicating with these parents? Select all that apply.
1. "We deal with situations like this all the time."
2. "We understand that you are anxious."
3. "We will give frequent updates."
4. "We really want to provide your child with the best care possible."
5. "If you have any concerns, please let us know."
a 19-year-old woman presents with worsening headaches. she reports a multi-year history of episodic throbbing headaches. they have intensified, and she now misses classes and work periodically as a result. the headaches occur about 4-6 times per month recently, up from 1-2 per month when she first started experiencing them. her headaches last 2-3 days and are accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and light sensitivity. after the headache resolves, she denies any residual symptoms. she denies neurologic symptoms, such as vision or taste changes, gait disturbances, and memory loss. she has tried multiple over-the-counter pain medications without relief. her mother and maternal aunt experienced similar headaches. she reports some increased stressors and less sleep since recently starting college.
A 19-year-old woman presents with worsening headaches. she reports a multi-year history of episodic throbbing headaches. Treatment approach should include providing treatment for acute headache, some prophylactic treatments, such as administration of topiramate.
what is throbbing headaches ?A throbbing headache is a common medical condition where blood rushes to the affected area of the head and Throbbing results from the dilation of the blood vessels from the increased blood flow.
Throbbing is a pulsing sensation which can come and go quickly in a frequent manner, some headaches can be a serious which causes stroke, a brain tumor, or meningitis, so that important to consult with a doctor if you have regular or painful headaches
Some important headaches are Occipital neuralgia which is a condition results from damaged nerves from the spinal cord to the scalp, a sharp, aching, or throbbing pain that starts at the base of the head and moves toward the scalp.
Throbbing headache can also arise at top of head where migraines can cause nausea, vomiting, or increased sensitivity to light or sound.
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a client is diagnosed with an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. which action is a priority nursing intervention?
A client is diagnosed with an st segment elevation myocardial infarction (stemi) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. monitoring for signs of bleeding is the priority nursing intervention.
Tissue Plasminogen activator:It is a thrombolytic. symptomatic and systemic hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication.
Tissue Plasminogen activator is an enzyme which is useful to treat diseases which includes heart attack, strokes and blood clots ,etc.
It is one type of glyco-protien which produced mainly a vascular endothelial cells.
The side effects of tissue Plasminogen activator includes headache, bleeding from the wound, paralysis, difficulties in breathing and swallowing, etc.
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent . it is also referred to as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). Alteplase converts plasminogen to the proteolytic enzyme plasmin, which lyses fibrin as well as fibrinogen.
What is blood clots?Blood clots are gel-like thick collections of blood that form in your veins or arteries when blood changes from liquid to partially solid.
A blood clot is also called a thrombus.
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he nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. which would be an expected finding for this client?
Compression of the cord is an expected finding for the client.
When the feet or the bottom of the baby are within the uterus, the baby is said to be breech. During a vaginal delivery, a baby should be positioned such that the head comes out first. By 36 weeks, most breech infants will flip to face forward. While some breech infants can be delivered vaginally, a C-section is often advised.
After the membranes have ruptured, the cord may prolapse, and the pressure of the presenting portion may compress the chord, causing fetal hypoxia. A breech presentation does not increase the risk of bleeding or preeclampsia over a cephalic presentation.
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Question correction:
A nurse is caring for a client in labor whose fetus is in the breech presentation. For what complication should the
nurse monitor the client?
Hemorrhagic shockIncreased blood pressureCompression of the cordMeconium in the amniotic fluid