Answer: 1:45
Explanation:
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be given within 3 hours after the onset of symptoms. Therefore, since the symptom onset was 1:00 pm, the window of opportunity ends at 4:00 pm. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is a protein which is involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It is a serine protease which is found on the endothelial cells, cells which line the blood vessels. As an enzyme, tPA catalyzes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, the major enzyme which is responsible for clot breakdown.
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is administered to a stroke patient who is admitted to the hospital for an ischemic stroke. The nurse should give tPA to the patient later than 4:00 pm.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A patient is admitted via ambulance to the emergency room of a stroke center at 1:30 p.m. with symptoms that the patient said began at 1:00 p.m. Within 1 hour, an ischemic stroke had been confirmed and the doctor ordered tPA. The nurse knows to give this drug no later than what time?
a) 4:00 p.m.
b) 5:30 p.m.
c) 2:30 p.m.
d) 3:00 p.m.
Which brain structure is most responsible for the processing of emotions?
Answer:
Limbic system
a patient who has been prescribed enalapril (vasotec) has developed a persistent nonproductive cough. what is your best action?
A patient who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) has developed a persistent nonproductive cough.
The best action is to hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
An ACE inhibitor, Vasotec. The angiotensin-converting enzyme is referred to as ACE.
Adults and children who are at least one month old and have hypertension are treated with Vasotec.
Adults with congestive heart failure can also be treated with Vasotec.
Another condition that is treated with Vasotec is ventricular dysfunction (the lower chambers of the heart that allow blood to flow out of the heart). The heart's capacity to pump blood throughout the body may be diminished by this condition.
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a client experiencing a manic phase of bipolar disorder sustained cuts on the body from falling through a store window. the nurse is preparing to start an intravenous needle insertion. how should the nurse explain the procedure to the client?
The nurse should explain the procedure in clear and simple terms to the client.
Bipolar disorder, formerly called manic depression, is a mental health condition that causes extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression).
When you become depressed, you may feel sad or hopeless and lose interest or pleasure in most activities. you may feel euphoric, full of energy, or unusually irritable. These mood swings can affect sleep, energy, activity, judgment, behavior, and the ability to think clearly.
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which medication reduces aldosterone-induced retention of sodium and water when prescribed for the treatment of heart failure?
The medication which reduces aldosterone-induced retention of sodium and water when prescribed for the treatment of heart failure is referred to as Spironolactone.
What is Spironolactone?
This is a type of medication which is used to treat illnesses related to the cardiovascular system. It has been proven effective for the treatment of high blood pressure and heart failure.
Spironolactone functions by blocking the effects of the hormone known as aldosterone which is the hormone responsible for the salt and water balance in the body system on arteriolar smooth muscles.
It prevents the body cells from absorbing too much salt or potassium thereby resulting in the treatment of fluid build up in the heart as a result of this.
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the patient asks about several different smoking cessation methods. when considering the transtheoretical model, in which stage of change is the patient currently in?
The fact that the patient asks about several different smoking cessation methods means that the patient is currently in the preparation stage.
What is smoking cessation?The process of breaking the habit of smoking is referred to as smoking cessation. Smoking tobacco or cigarettes has various negative health impacts on the body, mostly because they contain a lot of nicotine and are therefore very addictive.
The patient has entered the planning stage after they decide that quitting smoking will be beneficial and will provide more benefits than pleasure. Now is the time to talk about other nicotine replacement therapies, potential bupropion use, and the importance of family and social support. The doctor ought to assist the patient in creating a detailed plan for quitting smoking.
In conclusion, the patient is on the preparation stage.
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van beek m, geurts j, slangen r, et al. severity of neuropathy is associated with long-term spinal cord stimulation outcome in painful diabetic peripheral neuropathy: five-year follow-up of a prospective two-center clinical trial. diabetes care. 2018;41:32–38.
Up to 5 years after the start of treatment, SCS is effective in helping patients with PDPN manage their lower extremity chronic pain symptoms. In addition, after 5 years, 80% of PDPN patients are still using their SCS device. Additionally, a 5-year follow-up shows that the severity of neuropathy is linked to a higher risk of long-term treatment failure.
Describe neuropathy:Neuropathy is characterized by harm to or dysfunction of one or more nerves, and the most typical symptoms include pain, numbness, tingling, and weakening in the affected muscles. Although they can affect other areas of your body as well, neuropathies frequently start in your hands and feet.
What are neuropathy's four stages?Neuropathy's stages:
Stage 1: Numbness and pain.
Stage 2: Persistent pain
Stage 3: Severe Pain.
Stage 4: Total numbness/loss of sensation.
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at 1130 hrs, your patient has 150 ml left in his iv bag. it is infusing at 30 gtt/min. drop factor is 15 gtt/ml. do you have enough iv solution left to go to lunch (30 min) now, without changing the iv bag?
According to the given statement the time required 15 minutes after getting back from lunch.
Time calculation as defined:Time goes by very swiftly as things continue to change minute by minute.
To calculate time, use the time equation t = d/s, which asserts that duration is equal to length divided by speed.
According to the given statement:30 gtt/min
(Medication given)
× 1 ml/15 gtt
(I.V. tubing drop factor)
2 ml / minute
(flow rate in minutes), or
2 ml / minute multiplied by 60 minutes equals one hour.
converting factor
120 ml / hour
(flow Rate in hours)
Do you have enough IV solution left to last through a 30-minute meal without having to change your IV bag?1 hour is equal to 1130 hours plus 30 minutes.
The amount of fluid remaining in the IV bag after one hour, at midday, will be 150 ml - 120 ml = 30 ml.
Answer:
Yes,
You can go without changing the IV bag for lunch.
Minutes will it take to change the iv bag:150 ml
(Amount to Infuse)
x 1 minute/2 ml
(Flow rate)
=
75 minutes
(time to infuse), or
15 minutes after getting back from lunch.
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assessing the usability of wearable devices to measure gait and physical activity in chronic conditions: a systematic review
The necessity of patient involvement is emphasized in the worldwide plan for digital health developed by the World Health Organization. A key part of this is comprehending the usefulness and acceptability of wearable technology.
However, up until now, the majority of usability tests have been on healthy individuals. Understanding how wearable technology affects patients with chronic health issues is important.In five cohorts of people with chronic conditions (Parkinson's disease [PD], multiple sclerosis [MS], congestive heart failure [CHF], chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder [COPD], and proximal femoral fracture [PFF]), usability assessments of wearable devices were used to measure mobility through gait and physical activity.Usability of wearable technology is a variable in chronic health disorders that is poorly studied and reported. The voice of the patient should not be taken for granted, despite the fact that the variety in how these devices are applied suggests approval.Wearable technology is not successful in chronic health disorders.
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he dietary supplement health and education act of 1994 allows manufacturers to classify nutrient supplements and herbal products as rather than , reducing the testing they must undergo before marketing.
The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 permits makers to group supplement enhancements and home grown items as food rather than medications, lessening the testing they should go through prior to marketing.
What did the 1994 DSHEA do?The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 was sanctioned to restrict dietary producers and wholesalers from making false claims such as writing natural or therapeutic on supplement marks.The law likewise disallows the assembling and offer of adulterated dietary enhancements.The DSHEA means to make dietary enhancements more secure by disallowing makers and wholesalers from creating and selling mislabeled or adulterated items.The DSHEA expects that the maker of the dietary enhancement guarantees that their item meets DSHEA and FDA guidelines.Under the DSHEA, supplements with established ingredients (those that were sold in the United States before 1994) can be sold without any proof of security or adequacy.As opposed to dietary enhancements, prescription and non-prescription medicine can't be sold in the U.S. without strong proof that they are safe.Therefore the dietary enhancements like home remedies and nutrients, are not naturally more secure than prescription or non-prescription meds.Learn more about DSHEA here:
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the nurse is assessing a client's response to sleeping pills and notes continued restlessness and inability to sleep. after an increased dose leads to sleep, which factor should the nurse investigate first?\
"Is the client now tolerant to the drug?" is the factor that the nurse should investigate first for a client who's response after an increased dose leads to sleep when taking sleeping pills and notes continued restlessness and inability to sleep.
If using sleeping drugs doesn't help you fall asleep, several guidelines suggest doctors to rethink their approach. Although they probably have looked for all of these things, they might want to do so again to make sure you don't have any habits, take any other drugs, or have any other health issues that might be keeping you up at night.
The appropriateness of your sleep drug dosage may also be checked by the doctor. The doctor may want to check your expectations for the sleeping drugs to make sure they are reasonable. So the best thing that the nurse/doctor should do is to investigate if the client is sleeping pill tolerant.
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the nurse is caring for a client who reports dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea. which assessment parameter should make the nurse suspect this client may be suffering from heat stroke?
The nurse is caring for a client who reports dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea therefore the assessment parameter which should be used to suspect the client may be suffering from heat stroke is the skin being hot and dry to the touch.
What is Heat stroke?This is referred to a life threatening condition in which the body is unable to cool down as a result of it not being able to control its temperature. This means that the sweating mechanism which is a cooling technique in the body has failed.
In this type of condition, there is dehydration of the body which is characterized by dizziness, excessive thirst, and nausea. The body also feels hot and dry to touch and rehydration techniques should be adopted immediately as it could lead to death.
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vaginal discharge, pain in the llq and rlq, dysmenorrhea, and a gonococcal infection; likely diagnosis: group of answer choices
The pelvic inflammatory disease may be diagnosed based on vulva sludge, discomfort in the LLQ and RLQ, dysmenorrhea, and gonococcal infection (PID).
An infection of the female reproductive system is known as a pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It usually happens when bacteria from sex-related sexual contact spreads from your vulva to your uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries.
The pelvic inflammatory disease might present with moderate or modest signs and symptoms. Some women have no symptoms or indicators at all. Because of this, you might not be aware of it until you have difficulties getting pregnant or start experiencing persistent pelvic pain. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) including gonorrhea, chlamydia, or mycoplasma genitalium are the major cause of PID. The diagnosis of the pelvic inflammatory disease cannot be made by a single test (PID). Your symptoms and results of a gynecological exam are used to diagnose it.
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List three factors that can be involved in efficiency of the body
The three factors that can be involved in efficiency of the body include muscle fibers, technique, and fitness.
What is exercise?Any movement that engages your muscles and forces your body to burn calories is considered exercise. There are many different kinds of physical activity, to name a few: swimming, running, jogging, walking, and dancing. Numerous health advantages of exercise, both physically and emotionally, have been demonstrated.
The ratio of mechanical work rate to energy expenditure is a general definition of exercise effectiveness.
In this case, the three factors that can be involved in efficiency of the body include muscle fibers, technique, and fitness.
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while assessing a newborn infant, the nurse observes yellow–white retention cysts in the newborn’s mouth. the nurse should explain to the infant’s parents that these spots are usually indicative of
during the assessment of a client, the nurse recognizes that which of the client's lifestyle practices may predispose to the development of an inguinal hernia?
The nurse recognize that client's lifestyle strenous activity practices may predispose to the development of an inguinal hernia.
When tissue, such as a portion of the intestine, pushes through a weak area in the abdominal muscles, it develops into an inguinal hernia. When you cough, lean over, or lift anything heavy, the ensuing bulge may hurt.Inguinal hernia is a form of hernia that develops in the groin and is frequent in males. It can be brought on by physically demanding sports and activities, especially weightlifting. A disease known as sports hernia, which has similar symptoms and even a similar name but is not a hernia, can also be brought on by strenuous activities.To know more about strenous activity visit:
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what influences patient-therapist interactions in musculoskeletal physical therapy? qualitative systematic review and meta-synthesis
In musculoskeletal physical therapy, patient-therapist interactions are thought to be influenced by a variety of interpersonal, clinical, and organizational factors.
How does physical therapy work?One of the allied health professions is physical therapy, also referred to as physiotherapy. It is given by physical therapists who, through physical examination, work to promote, preserve, or restore health.
What kind of physical therapy is an example of?To relieve muscle pain or spasms, try massage, heat or cold therapy, warm water therapy, or ultrasound rehabilitation to assist with learning to utilize an artificial limb. Practice using assistive devices to help you move or maintain balance, such as a cane or walker.
What are the three different types of physical therapy?Physical therapy in orthopedics.Physiotherapy for children.Pulmonary and Cardiovascular Rehabilitation.To know more about Physical Therapy visit?
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a client begins escitalopram for treatment of a depressive episode. on the fifth day, the client refuses the medication, stating, ‘it doesn’t help, so what's the use of taking it> which is the best response by the nurse?
"There is no need for the nurse to notify the health care provider yet." is the best response by the nurse for a client that begins escitalopram for treatment of a depressive episode.
Typically, it takes one to four weeks for escitalopram to reach a therapeutic blood level (Lexapro). It's too long—six to eight weeks. The patient requires longer time, not a higher dosage, to see a medication's effects.
A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) called escitalopram is used to treat anxiety and major depressive disorder (MDD). This medication inhibits the transport of human serotonin in a highly powerful, dose-dependent manner.
This medication increases the action of serotonin in the central nervous system by preventing its reuptake into presynaptic nerve ends. Additionally, escitalopram exhibits allosteric action. Additionally, there is little chance that it will interact with other medications.
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a nurse is teaching a health class about human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). which basic methods are used to reduce the incidence of hiv transmission? select all that apply.
The methods are used to reduce the incidence of hiv transmission are Rinse and wash contaminated clothing separately,Dispose of contaminated articles in a sealed plastic bag and place in the trash, and Dispose of sharp objects by using a red biohazard container if available. Thus, option 3rd, 4th, and 5th is correct.
What is HIV ?Human Immunodeficiency Virus is the causative organism that causes AIDS Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome which is a serious disease which destroys the immunity system of the patient and day by day the patient looses his immunity and unable to fight from any infection or disease.
Dispose of contaminated articles in a sealed plastic bag and place in the trash,Dispose of sharp objects by using a red biohazard container if available.Use a disinfectant wash cloth to clean the refrigerator.Rinse and wash contaminated clothing separately,Dispose of contaminated articles in a sealed plastic bag and place in the trash,Dispose of sharp objects by using a red biohazard container if available are the ways to get yourself away from AIDS.
Therefore,The methods are used to reduce the incidence of hiv transmission are Rinse and wash contaminated clothing separately,Dispose of contaminated articles in a sealed plastic bag and place in the trash, and Dispose of sharp objects by using a red biohazard container if available. Thus, option 3rd, 4th, and 5th is correct.
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Your question is incomplete, probably the complete question/missing part is:
a nurse is teaching a health class about human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). which basic methods are used to reduce the incidence of hiv transmission? select all that apply.
2.Use a disinfectant wash cloth to clean the refrigerator
3.Rinse and wash contaminated clothing separately
4.Dispose of contaminated articles in a sealed plastic bag and place in the trash
5.Dispose of sharp objects by using a red biohazard container if available
the primary health care provider prescribes daily fasting blood glucose levels for a client with diabetes mellitus. which is the goal of fasting glucose levels for a cloent with diabetes mellitus
Answer:
A glucose level between 70 to 105 mg/dL
Explanation:
how many rights of delegation are there in the nursing practice? record your answer using a whole number.
Answer:5
Explanation:
The 5 Rights clarify the components of the delegation's decision-making process. The 5 Rights outline professional and legal responsibility for nurses at all levels and classes, from nursing service administrators to staff nurses.
What are the five rights of the nursing delegation?The five rights of delegation serve to guide the appropriate transfer of responsibility for the performance of an activity to another person. These "rights" are defined as having the right task, the right circumstance, the right person, the right direction/communication, and the right supervision/evaluation.
With this information, we can conclude that The Five (5) Rights of Delegation clarify the critical components of the delegation decision-making process.
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studies shows that "crack babies" who are entering school have significant difficulty dealing with multiple stimuli and forming close attachments. how might both genetic and environmental influences have combined to produce these results?
studies shows that "crack babies" who are entering school have significant difficulty dealing with multiple stimuli and forming close attachments. how might both genetic and environmental influences have combined to produce these results?
which medications can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state? a. beta-blockers b. diuretics c. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. thyroid hormones
The medications which can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is referred to as beta-blockers and is therefore denoted as option A.
What is Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?This is a serious complication which is related to diabetes mellitus and it involves the blood glucose level being high for an extended period of time thereby leading to certain symptoms.
Beta blockers is a medication which is capable of increasing the blood glucose level in the body and it also reduces the effect of oral hypoglycemic medications.
Thus is therefore the reason why beta blockers was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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a nurse is planning to insert a peripheral iv catheter for an older adult client. which of the followin
A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral iv catheter for an older adult client, the action in which the nurse should plan to take is to position the client's arm in the dependent position.
What is a Peripheral iv catheter?This refers to a small, short plastic catheter which is inserted into the skin through the vein and is used to provide fluids and drugs to the body especially when one is ill.
This is usually fixed to a patient's arm and often times in the head region at an angle of fifteen to thirty degrees with the use of adhesives and attached to a drip which is hanged and slowly releases its content.
The nurse should take the client's arm in the dependent position as it reduces the risk of the vein being distended due to gravity thereby eliminating complications and encouraging adequate recovery of the patient.
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what should the nurse tell a client who is about to begin chemotherapy and is anxious about hair loss?
A client is about to begin chemotherapy and is anxious about hair loss. the nurse should consider getting a wig or cap prior to beginning the treatment.
Who are nurses?A nurse is a person who works in the hospital and taking care of patients. they are specially trained to give perfect care and treatment to the people who are sick and injured.
They work with the doctors and other healthcare workers to make patients well and keep them healthy.
Nursing is a profession like doctors but training for nurses is different.
What is chemotherapy?It is one of treatment method of cancer.
In this method strong chemicals are used to kill the cancerous cells and isolate these cells from other organs.
Chemotherapy is a systematic medication.
Chemotherapy goes through the whole body, so during it's action, the healthy cells also comes in contact to chemical drugs. this results in damage of healthy cells. so it has side-effects also like hair loss and nausea.
Chemotherapy doses depends on the factors like weight of the body, stage of the cancer, age, type of cancer, etc.
There are several ways of giving chemotherapy to a patient like intravenous chemotherapy, oral chemotherapy, injectable, direct to the artery.
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a client who is in the first trimester is being discharged after a week of hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum. she is to be maintained at home with rehydration infusion therapy. what is the priority nursing activity for the home health nurse?
After a week of hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum the priority nursing activity for the home health nurse is monitoring the client for signs of electrolyte imbalances.
What is hyperemesis gravidarum ?Terrible morning sickness and vomiting while pregnant. Only in rare cases does morning sickness reach the level of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Severe nausea and feeling lightheaded or faint upon standing are symptoms. Additionally, it may result in frequent vomiting, which can induce dehydration.
Hospitalization and therapy with IV fluids and anti-nausea drugs may be necessary for this disease.
What is the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?It is unknown what specifically causes nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. However, it is thought to be brought on by a hormone known as human chorionic gonadotropin, which is rising quickly in the blood (HCG).
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which combination of foods should the nurse encourage a child with glomerulonephritis to choose for a meal?
Corn, roast chicken, peach combination of foods should the nurse encourage a child with glomerulonephritis to choose for a meal.
GlomerulonephritisGlomerulonephritis is an infection and damage to the kidneys' filtering system (glomerulus). It may start out slowly or develop more quickly. The urine does not effectively filter toxins, metabolic wastes, or excess fluid. Instead, they cause the body to enlarge and get exhausted as they accumulate.
What causes acute glomerulonephritis?Infections like strep throat may be to blame for the acute sickness. Other conditions such as polyarteritis nodosa, Goodpasture's syndrome, Wegener's disease, and lupus may also be to blame. Kidney failure can be avoided with early detection and appropriate treatment.
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during a health assessment interview, a nurse learns that the client has a family history of colorectal cancer. what information should the nurse give the client about reducing the risk for colorectal cancer? select all that apply.
A nurse discovers that a client has a family history of colorectal cancer during a health assessment session. The nurse should educate the patient on ways to lower their risk of developing colorectal cancer, such as engaging in at least 30 minutes of regular exercise each day, obtaining an annual FOBT, and consuming enough folic acid in their diet.
Increase your intake of fruits, veggies, and whole grains since they provide vital vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that the body desperately needs. Give up drinking and smoking.
Regularly engage in physical activity, such as yoga. Maintain a healthy weight and an active lifestyle. As people age, their chance of colorectal cancer rises. Although young adults and teens can get colorectal cancer, those over the age of 50 account for the majority of cases. For males with colon cancer, the average age of diagnosis is 68, whereas for women it is 72.
Overall, getting frequent colorectal cancer screenings, starting at age 45, is the most efficient strategy to lower your chance of developing the disease. Precancerous polyps (abnormal growths) in the colon or rectum are where almost all colorectal malignancies start. Increasing both the quantity and the intensity of your exercise may help lower your risk.
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a nurse is reviewing immunizations with a parent of an infant. how should the nurse respond when the parent asks, "which immunizations should be given at the 12- month checkup
A nurse is reviewing immunizations with a parent of an infant. how should the nurse respond when the parent asks, the immunizations should be given at the 12- month checkup are as following :
Measles
mumps
rubella (MMR) (1st dose)
Polio (IPV) (3rd dose)
Pneumococcal disease (PCV) (4th dose)
Hepatitis A (Hep A) (1st dose)
The above written are the vaccinations that need to be given to 12 months infants.
What is immunization ?It is the process in which the body prepares the antibodies against the antigen exposure. The process deals with the immunity that are created inside the body.
The first vaccinations that are given to the babies first are rabies, measles and mumps. The vaccination these exposed are the vaccines that need to be corporate are because these immunity makes the baby a little immune to these diseases.
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the greatest improvements in flexibility occur as the result of stretching as a part of warm-up for cardiorespiratory and resistance training programs.
The greatest improvements in flexibility occur as the result of stretching as a part of a warm-up for cardiorespiratory and resistance training programs.
1)False
Cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF), though influenced by a number of unchangeable variables, including gender, age, and genetics, has gained attention in recent years as an objective measure of physical activity and a tool for evaluating the connection between physical activity and health status [30,31]. As a result, correlations between CRF and indices of abdominal obesity may hint at a link between physical activity and abdominal obesity. The results of research that took precise measurements of VAT are particularly significant. The early investigation on the topic found that VAT was not correlated significantly with CRF, only with the quantity of total abdominal adipose tissue and SAT [32].
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How do antibody tests allow scientists to target & id specific disease agents? explain, discussing immune response.
Answer:
because it does just look up the answer on Goo Gle
Explanation:
the answer is above