The following are the statements that a prenatal nurse would make regarding the role of placental hormones:
Below are the roles of placental hormones;
Placental hormones maintain pregnancy by inhibiting uterine contractions. It produces progesterone, which helps prepare the uterus for pregnancy. It produces estrogen, which helps to promote the development of the mammary gland. It produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which stimulates the corpus luteum to continue producing estrogen and progesterone."a prenatal nurse is conducting a class on healthy pregnancy and explains the role of placental hormones. which statements would the nurse make? select all that apply."
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while triaging a pediatric patient, the triage nurse uses the mnemonic sample when eliciting a history. what is an appropriate question for the letter l?
When triaging a pediatric patient, an appropriate question for the letter "L" when using the SAMPLE mnemonic is "What is the patient's last oral intake?"
What is the SAMPLE mnemonic?The SAMPLE mnemonic is a tool used by healthcare providers, particularly nurses, during the initial assessment and triaging of patients. It is an acronym that stands for the following:
S - Signs and SymptomsA - AllergiesM - MedicationsP - Past medical historyL - Last oral intakeE - Events leading up to the injury or illnessUsing this tool can help providers gather information about the patient's medical history, allergies, medications, and more. It is particularly useful in emergency situations or when dealing with patients who are unable to communicate their medical history themselves. When triaging a pediatric patient, the nurse can use the SAMPLE mnemonic to gather important information about the patient's history.
Therefore, an appropriate question for the letter "L" would be "What is the patient's last oral intake?" This is important information to gather in order to determine if the patient is at risk for dehydration or other complications.
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the nurse is reviewing the biophysical profile (bpp) results and would expect which variables to be included in this test? select all that apply.
The score is less than 8, then there may be a need for further evaluation or intervention.
The nurse would expect the following variables to be included in the biophysical profile (BPP) test:
• Fetal breathing movements
• Fetal tone
• Fetal movements
• Amniotic fluid volume
• Nonstress test (NST)
The Biophysical Profile (BPP) is an ultrasound-based test that is used to evaluate the fetal well-being during pregnancy. The test assesses five variables that are indicative of fetal health. These five variables include fetal breathing movements, fetal tone, fetal movements, amniotic fluid volume, and nonstress test (NST). The test is generally performed in the third trimester of pregnancy and is usually done when there is a suspected risk to the fetal health.
Each variable is scored either 0 or 2 based on the presence or absence of a specific observation. A score of 2 is given when a normal result is obtained, and a score of 0 is given when an abnormal result is obtained. The BPP score ranges from 0 to 10. A score of 8 to 10 is considered normal and indicates the fetal well-being. However, if the score is less than 8, then there may be a need for further evaluation or intervention.
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which slightly elevated laboratory result would the clinician observe in a patient with idiopathic hirsutism
A clinician would observe an elevated serum testosterone level in a patient with idiopathic hirsutism. This can be confirmed through a laboratory test.
Idiopathic hirsutism is a condition characterized by excessive hair growth in women that is not caused by an underlying medical condition or medication. In some cases, idiopathic hirsutism may be associated with elevated levels of androgens, such as testosterone, which are male sex hormones that are also present in women in smaller amounts.
To confirm the presence of elevated serum testosterone levels in a patient with idiopathic hirsutism, a clinician may order laboratory tests such as a total testosterone test or a free testosterone test. These tests measure the amount of testosterone in the bloodstream and can help diagnose conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or adrenal hyperplasia that can cause elevated androgen levels and hirsutism.
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keeping in mind l.j.'s health history and admitting diagnosis, what are the 2 most important assessments you will make during your physical examination and assessment?
Keeping in mind L.J.'s health history and admitting diagnosis, the two most important assessments to be made during a physical examination and assessment are neurological assessment and cardiovascular assessment.
Neurological Assessment is an important assessment, given that L.J.'s admitting diagnosis is a head injury. This will enable one to determine the extent of the injury, identify any abnormal neurological responses, and provide appropriate care.
Cardiovascular Assessment is the second most important assessment, which will help to establish L.J.'s overall heart health and help to identify any underlying conditions that may have contributed to his current illness or injury.
In general, during the physical examination, it is important to assess the vital signs, skin color, temperature, and texture, as well as the musculoskeletal and respiratory systems. This will help to identify any underlying medical conditions that may need to be addressed to ensure that the patient is receiving appropriate care.
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the nurse is caring for a client admitted with tuberculosis. the client asks why the nurse wears a respirator, gown, and gloves whenever they are in the room. how should the nurse respond?
The nurse should explain to the client that they are wearing the respirator, gown, and gloves in order to: protect both themselves and the client from the spread of tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection that is spread through the air and can cause serious health complications.
The nurse is taking steps to prevent the spread of the infection by wearing a respirator, which helps to filter out bacteria and particles in the air, a gown, which serves as a barrier between the nurse and the patient, and gloves, which help to prevent the nurse from passing bacteria to the patient.
By wearing these protective items, the nurse is helping to protect the client from any potential spread of the infection.
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a client on corticosteroid therapy needs to be taught that a course of corticosteroids of 2 weeks' duration can suppress the adrenal cortex for how long?
If a client is on corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period of time, the adrenal cortex can be suppressed because corticosteroids mimic the effects of natural steroids .
In general , the duration of adrenal after corticosteroids will vary depending on the dose, duration of therapy. While the course of corticosteroids lasting two weeks can suppress the adrenal cortex for up to several weeks after the medication is stopped.
Also, corticosteroid therapy have many potential risks and side effects of like adrenal suppression. Clients should work closely and healthcare provider should determine proper therapy and doses for any signs of adrenal suppression s. If adrenal suppression is suspected, the client's healthcare provider may recommend tapering off the medication .
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can you name the chronic disease of connective tissue characterized by edema, inflammation, and degeneration of skeletal muscles?
The chronic disease of connective tissue characterized by edema, inflammation, and degeneration of skeletal muscles is polymyositis. Thus, Option D is correct.
Polymyositis is a rare autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and degeneration of skeletal muscles, leading to weakness, fatigue, and difficulty with movement. It typically affects the muscles of the neck, shoulders, hips, and back, and may also cause difficulty with swallowing or breathing in severe cases. While the exact cause of polymyositis is unknown, it is thought to be related to an abnormal immune response that attacks muscle tissue.
Treatment usually involves corticosteroids and immunosuppressant medications to control inflammation and preserve muscle function.
This question should be provided with answer choices:
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the registered nurse is observing a newly hired nurse perform a dressing change on a client with a leg ulcer. an enzymatic agent is being used to treat the ulcer. which observation, if made by the registered nurse, would indicate a need for further teaching with the newly hired nurse?
If the registered nurse is observing a newly hired nurse perform a dressing change on a client with a leg ulcer using an enzymatic agent, it's vital to provide adequate and appropriate care for a patient with a leg ulcer.
A leg ulcer is an open wound that occurs when the skin is damaged, resulting in a shallow crater. They frequently develop on the leg's interior side, just above the ankle. In most cases, leg ulcers are painless, but they may be itchy and uncomfortable. Dressing changes, hygiene maintenance, and treatment with enzymatic agents are all part of leg ulcer care.
In this case, the observation that the registered nurse needs to look for is whether the newly hired nurse is correctly performing the dressing change process. The following would indicate that the newly hired nurse needs further teaching:
When the newly hired nurse fails to identify the client's leg ulcer and the condition requires treatment with an enzymatic agent, the nurse will need further teaching on how to manage the ulcer with the enzymatic agent.
Therefore, the registered nurse will need to provide additional instructions on how to handle the client's leg ulcer appropriately when using an enzymatic agent.
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which laboratory information will the nurse assess to detect if hit develops ina client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion
Answer:
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Explanation:
Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so that the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels.
a victim of a stab wound to the chest develops a pneumothorax. which type of pneumothorax is most likely in his case?
the health care provider prescribes dantrolene (dantrium) to a patient immediately after surgery. what condition does the nurse expect the patient has experienced?
The nurse expects that the patient has experienced malignant hyperthermia, a condition caused by an adverse reaction to certain anesthetics.
Malignant hyperthermia is an inherited disorder that can be triggered by anesthesia and certain muscle relaxants. Symptoms can include an elevated body temperature, an increase in muscle contractions, and metabolic acidosis. Dantrolene works to decrease muscle contractions and relaxes the muscle, decreasing the body's temperature.
Dantrolene (Dantrium) is used to treat this condition, as it helps reduce muscle contractions and relaxes the muscles, decreasing the body's temperature.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a progressive, degenerative muscle illness. the client states that she would like to remain in her home with her daughter as long as possible. what action should the nurse take?
The nurse should identify resources to support the client and daughter at home for as long as possible.
What is a degenerative muscle disease?A degenerative muscle disease is a group of muscle diseases that cause gradual muscle weakness and loss of muscle tissue over time. The most well-known of these conditions are Duchenne muscular dystrophy and Becker muscular dystrophy, which mostly affects boys, but other types are also present.
The nurse is caring for a client with a progressive, degenerative muscle illness. The client states that she would like to remain in her home with her daughter as long as possible.
What action should the nurse take?The nurse should identify resources to support the client and daughter at home for as long as possible. Because the client has stated that they would like to remain in their home with their daughter for as long as possible, the nurse should collaborate with other members of the care team and identify resources that will enable them to do so.
There are a variety of resources that may be accessible, such as home health care, respite care, and other community resources that can assist the client and her daughter in the home setting. The nurse should recognize and address any psychosocial and practical issues that the client and her daughter may encounter and provide guidance and support to assist them in remaining at home as long as possible.
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when the health-care worker praises a child for eating all of the meal and expresses disappointment when the child does not eat, the health-care worker is following the behavioral theory of:
The healthcare worker is following the behavioral theory of: reinforcement.
Reinforcement is when a response is strengthened due to a favorable outcome, in this case, the child eating the meal. By praising the child and expressing disappointment, the healthcare worker is reinforcing the behavior of eating the meal.
This type of reinforcement is called positive reinforcement. Positive reinforcement occurs when a response is strengthened due to a favorable outcome. In this case, the favorable outcome is the child eating the meal. By praising the child and expressing disappointment, the healthcare worker is reinforcing the behavior of eating the meal.
In addition, there is also negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement occurs when a response is strengthened due to the removal of an unpleasant stimulus. In this example, the unpleasant stimulus could be the healthcare worker expressing disappointment. By removing the unpleasant stimulus (the disappointment), the healthcare worker is reinforcing the behavior of eating the meal.
Overall, the healthcare worker is using the behavioral theory of reinforcement to encourage the child to eat the meal. By praising the child for eating and expressing disappointment when the child does not, the healthcare worker is reinforcing the behavior of eating the meal.
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you are preparing a room to admit a person to a nursing center. the person is ambulatory. which is correct?
Prepare the room with safety features such as grab bars, slip-resistant floors, and clear pathways for mobility.
Since the person is ambulatory, they are able to move around on their own. However, they may still need assistance to prevent falls and ensure their safety. Therefore, it is important to prepare the room with safety features such as grab bars in the bathroom and near the bed, slip-resistant floors, and clear pathways for mobility.
This will help to prevent accidents and promote the person's independence. Additionally, it is important to ensure that the room is clean and comfortable, with appropriate lighting and temperature control, to ensure the person's comfort and well-being.
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a community health nurse is preparing a presentation for a health fair on the topics of planning for a pregnancy. which major goal has the nurse determined should be accomplished with this presentation?
The major goal of the nurse's presentation on planning for pregnancy should be to educate and empower the audience to make informed decisions about their reproductive health and to promote healthy pregnancy outcomes.
The major goal of the presentation for a health fair on the topics of planning for a pregnancy is to educate and empower individuals to make informed decisions regarding their reproductive health. The presentation should provide essential information about the importance of pre-conception health care, the process of becoming pregnant, and the risks associated with pregnancy. It should also cover topics such as prenatal nutrition, warning signs of potential health issues, and any available resources or support.
By understanding the process and risks associated with pregnancy, individuals are better equipped to plan for and make healthy decisions concerning their reproductive health. Additionally, individuals should have the knowledge and skills to recognize any potential health issues and access resources or seek medical attention when necessary.
Overall, the nurse’s goal is to equip participants of the health fair with the information necessary to make informed decisions about their reproductive health, and ultimately improve their health outcomes.
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a hospital client has experienced a seizure. in the immediate recovery period, what action best protects the client's safety?
Answer:
Placing the client in a side-lying position.
Explanation:
This will help the patient breathe.
the nurse is performing a routine history and physical on a client who attends the senior citizen's center. what finding noted by the nurse would suggests that the client may have a history of chronic emphysema? select all that apply 1. barrel chest 2. green sputum 3. kyphosis 4. tracheal deviation 5. resonance to percussion of bilateral lung fields 6. reports frequent morning headaches
The nurse performing a routine history and physical on a client who attends the senior citizen's center should look for the following findings that may suggest a history of chronic emphysema:
1. Barrel chest – characterized by an abnormally enlarged thoracic cavity due to over-inflation of the lungs.
2. Green sputum – a sign of infection or inflammation caused by exposure to certain environmental agents.
3. Kyphosis – a curvature of the spine caused by weakening of the chest muscles due to chronic emphysema.
4. Tracheal deviation – a misalignment of the trachea, caused by increased pressure in the chest cavity due to chronic emphysema.
5. Resonance to percussion of bilateral lung fields – an abnormal sound heard by the nurse when tapping on the patient’s chest due to abnormal air flow and ventilation caused by chronic emphysema.
6. Reports of frequent morning headaches – a symptom of chronic emphysema due to decreased oxygen levels in the blood.
By noting these findings, the nurse may be able to identify a history of chronic emphysema in the patient.
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a client with an exceptionally low body mass index has been admitted to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of hypothermia. the nurse should know that this client's susceptibility to heat loss is related to atrophy of what skin component?
The nurse should know that this client's susceptibility to heat loss is related to the atrophy of adipose tissue, which serves as an insulator to retain heat.
When adipose tissue atrophies, heat loss increases, putting a person at a higher risk for hypothermia. Hypothermia is a medical emergency that occurs when the body's temperature drops below the normal range, which is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. A low BMI is one of the factors that puts a person at risk for hypothermia, particularly if the BMI is below 18.5.
According to research, hypothermia is a major concern among underweight people, since they lack adequate insulation and are unable to produce sufficient body heat. Atrophy of adipose tissue, which serves as an insulator to retain heat, is responsible for this.
Hence, when adipose tissue atrophies, heat loss increases, putting a person at a higher risk for hypothermia.
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which intervention does the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) who is experiencing anxiety during acute dyspneic episodes?
The nurse should include cognitive-behavioral interventions in the plan of care for a patient with COPD who is experiencing anxiety during acute dyspneic episodes.
Cognitive-behavioral interventions are designed to identify and address cognitive distortions, irrational thoughts, and negative self-talk that may be causing or exacerbating the patient's anxiety. Interventions may involve teaching relaxation techniques, deep breathing exercises, distraction methods, and positive reframing.
The nurse should also work to identify and reduce any environmental factors that may be contributing to the patient's anxiety, such as noise levels, environmental temperature, and light levels. By providing the patient with the necessary support and interventions, the nurse can help reduce the frequency and intensity of their anxiety during acute dyspneic episodes.
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the nurse is caring for a 2-year-old boy with an umbilical hernia and is teaching the mother about this condition. which response from the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old boy with an umbilical hernia and is teaching the mother about this condition. A response from the mother indicating a need for further teaching would be if she does not understand the differences between an umbilical hernia and an inguinal hernia.
An umbilical hernia is when the intestines push through the opening of the umbilical cord, while an inguinal hernia is when the intestines push through the lower abdomen near the groin. Therefore, if the mother does not understand the differences between the two, then it would be indicative of a need for further teaching.
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when inspecting the nails of a patient with dark skin, what would the nurse expect to record as normal findings?
which clinical manifestation would the nurse observe in an older client diagnosed with major depressive disorder? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses
Clinical manifestations that the nurse would observe in major depressive disorder client are:
2. decreased appetite3. neglect of personal hygiene4. 'I don't know' answers to questions5. 'I can't remember' answers to questionsMajor depressive disorder is a common mental health condition in older adults that can lead to a range of symptoms. Decreased appetite and neglect of personal hygiene are both common physical manifestations of depression, while 'I don't know' and 'I can't remember' responses to questions can indicate cognitive impairment or memory loss associated with depression.
These symptoms can significantly impact an older adult's quality of life and may require targeted interventions and support from healthcare providers and caregivers.
This question should be provided with the options, which are:
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a mechanically ventilated client is receiving a combination of atracurium and the opioid analgesic morphine. the nurse monitors the client for which potential complication
The nurse should monitor the client for signs of respiratory depression, as atracurium and morphine are both drugs that can cause this.
What are the symptoms of respiratory depression?Respiratory depression is characterized by shallow and slow breathing, an increase in carbon dioxide levels, and decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Other signs include changes in heart rate and blood pressure, drowsiness, and confusion. The nurse should also monitor the client for hypotension, which is a decrease in blood pressure, as well as bradycardia, which is an abnormally slow heart rate. Additionally, the nurse should assess the client for signs of excessive muscle relaxation, as atracurium is a neuromuscular blocking agent.
This can lead to muscle weakness, loss of muscle tone, and difficulty swallowing or speaking. The nurse should also check for signs of allergic reactions, such as hives, swelling of the face, or difficulty breathing. Lastly, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of opioid toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, drowsiness, and slowed breathing. It is important to note that opioid medications can cause addiction, so the nurse should take steps to ensure proper dosage and monitor the client's response.
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in a report, the night nurse tells the incoming nurse that one client with dementia. which nursing concern will the nurse identify to address the client's sundowning syndrome?
The night nurse should identify the need to create a calming and familiar environment to help the client with dementia address their sundowning syndrome.
Sundowning Syndrome is a type of behavioral disorder that can occur in individuals who have dementia. It is characterized by increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon and evening, which can lead to a worsening of symptoms like disorientation, anxiety, and mood swings. It can cause difficulty sleeping and increased aggression.
Sundowning Syndrome is thought to be caused by a combination of factors, including the disruption of the circadian rhythm and an imbalance of hormones and neurotransmitters. Treatment typically involves the use of medications and behavior therapy. Additionally, environmental changes such as providing a comforting and familiar setting and managing lighting can help reduce sundowning episodes.
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which event would require a nurse to complete and file an incident report? the nurse, preparing an intravenous infusion, notes that the battery of an intravenous infusion pump is not working.
An incident report would be required by the nurse preparing an intravenous infusion, who notices that the battery of an intravenous infusion pump is not working. The goal of an incident report is to gather accurate and objective information about the event or problem, which can be used to learn from the event and help prevent similar events in the future.
The report should have the following information:
a precise summary of the occurrence, including what happened and when who was present, and any information that may have contributed to the event a clear and thorough explanation of the patient's symptoms,the treatment received, and the outcome of the incident (if any).The report should be filed as soon as possible after the incident is discovered, usually within 24 hours. It is important to note that an incident report is not a punitive document; rather, it is a learning opportunity for healthcare practitioners and organizations to improve their practices, identify potential problems, and take corrective action where necessary.
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a client who has been severely beaten is admitted to the emergency department. the nurse suspects a basilar skull fracture after assessing:
A client who has been severely beaten is admitted to the emergency department, the nurse suspects a basilar skull fracture after assessing the presence of a raccoon sign.
A basilar skull fracture occurs when the skull's bone at the base of the brain is broken, the fracture of the skull can cause blood to flow from the ears, nose, and mouth. Basilar skull fractures can also cause significant brain damage, meningitis, and other complications. The signs and symptoms of basilar skull fracture are the presence of a raccoon's sign can be determined by the nurse, ecchymosis is another name for a raccoon's eye, which is also known as periorbital ecchymosis. This is a bruising around the eyes, which can be a sign of a basilar skull fracture or brain injury.
Battle sign is another term for mastoid ecchymosis, which is a bruise behind the ear, this condition indicates that the basal skull has been injured. Due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear, a patient may experience hearing problems, otorrhea, or rhinorrhea. A basilar skull fracture can also cause some other symptoms including headache, nausea, vomiting, stiff neck or pain in neck, slurred speech, blurred vision, or other vision problems, confusion, loss of consciousness or coma. For any further information regarding the condition, please refer to a medical practitioner.
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in which order would the nurse follow steps of risk management to identify potential hazards and eliminate them before harm occurs
The nurse should follow the following steps of risk management in order to identify and eliminate potential hazards before harm occurs:
IdentificationAssessmentEvaluationInterventionMonitoring
Risk management is a process that aims to identify and eliminate potential hazards that could cause harm. It involves a series of steps, which must be followed in order.
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a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease reports daily symptoms of dyspnea and cough. which medication will the primary health care provider prescribe?
It is the primary health care provider who will determine which medication to prescribe to the patient. A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and experiencing daily symptoms of dyspnea and cough, may be prescribed with medication such as bronchodilators, inhaled corticosteroids, and phosphodiesterase inhibitors.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, or COPD, is a disease characterized by reduced airflow that makes breathing difficult. It's caused by chronic bronchitis and emphysema, two lung disorders. Chronic bronchitis is a long-term inflammation of the bronchi, which are the tubes that bring air to the lungs, while emphysema is the destruction of the alveoli, or air sacs, in the lungs. Bronchodilators for COPD Bronchodilators are medications that help open up the airways in the lungs.
They relax the muscles surrounding the bronchial tubes, allowing more air to pass through. They're commonly used to relieve shortness of breath caused by COPD. Bronchodilators are given as inhalers, nebulizers, and tablets. Inhaled Corticosteroids for COPD Inhaled corticosteroids are medications that reduce inflammation in the airways. These medications are commonly used to treat asthma, but they can also be used to treat COPD. Inhaled corticosteroids are usually given with a bronchodilator.
Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors for COPD Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are medications that help relax the muscles around the airways. They're used to relieve shortness of breath caused by COPD. They're usually given as tablets. Therefore, it is the primary health care provider who will determine which medication to prescribe to the patient.
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which finding would help confirm the nurse's suspicion that a client may have meningitis after surgery for a brain tumor?
A confirmed diagnosis of meningitis after surgery for a brain tumor can be confirmed through lab findings such as, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, which should show a higher than normal number of (WBCs) in the fluid.
Additionally, a culture of the CSF may demonstrate the presence of specific bacteria or fungi which would be a confirmation of infection.
The presence of abnormal proteins or increased sugar content in the CSF are also indicative of infection.
Imaging studies such as a CT or MRI scan may also reveal an increased amount of fluid in the area surrounding the brain, which could indicate inflammation in the meninges.
Other symptoms that may indicate meningitis include fever, headaches, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, confusion, and drowsiness.
In the case of meningitis, the nurse should always contact the doctor to discuss further treatment.
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a college football player is brought to the emergency room by paramedics after a blunt trauma injury received during game. there is a high suspicion that the patient has sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. the emergency room nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the health care provider and notes that an order has been written to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. the nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important because:
The nurse understands that collecting all voided urine and sending it to the laboratory for analysis is an important nursing intervention because it can help diagnose a potential kidney injury. Urine tests can detect the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which can indicate a kidney injury.
Additionally, laboratory analysis of urine can also detect the presence of abnormal cells, providing further insight into the patient's condition.
To ensure the accuracy of the test results, the nurse should use strict guidelines when collecting and handling the urine. First, the nurse should collect all the urine voided by the patient, including the initial urine stream and any subsequent urine that is voided. If possible, the nurse should avoid the use of a catheter to collect the sample as this can introduce microorganisms and other contaminants into the sample.
Once the sample has been received by the laboratory, the urine should be tested according to the appropriate standards and protocols. The laboratory should use analytical techniques such as microscopic examination, chemical tests, and cell counts to detect any abnormalities in the sample. Results should be reported back to the health care provider, who can use them to make decisions regarding the patient's diagnosis and treatment.
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