Donna makes $9.75 per hour at her job. Kaylee makes $4 per hour at her job, and she receives a $0.25 raise each month. Which inequality could be used to find the number of months it will take for Kaylee to earn at least as much as Donna per hour?

According to the given statement The relative frequency distribution of the data is = 964.400

A relative frequency distribution, which is connected to a probability distribution and is widely used in statistics, illustrates the percentage of the total number of observations associated with each value or class of values.

Relative frequency distributions are particularly valuable because they show how common a value is in a dataset in comparison to all other values.

The relative frequency distribution of the data:

=  the frequency/ total number of data.

So,

the frequency of the data is:

1227 + 884 + 1160 + 634 + 917

= 4,822

The total number of data: = 5

Now applying the formula we get:

= 4822/5

= 964.400

According to the given statement the frequency of the data is = 964.400

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Alfonso borrowed $750 from the bank with 4% simple interest and borrowed $1,750 from the bank with 3.5% simple interest.

How do we calculate the amount borrowed?

Let:

x = amount borrowed from the bank that charged 4% simple interest

y = amount borrowed from the bank that charged 3.5% simple interest

Therefore, we have:

x + y = 2,500 ............................... (1)

0.04x + 0.035y = 91.25 ............................. (2)

From equation (1), we have:

x = 2,500 - y ....................... (3)

Substituting equation (3) into (2) and solving for y, we have:

0.04(2,500 - y) + 0.035y = 91.25

100 - 0.04y + 0.035y = 91.25

100 - 0.005y = 91.25

-0.005y = 91.25 - 100

-0.005y = -8.75

y = -8.75 / -0.005

y = $1,750

Substituting for y in equation (3), we have;

x = 2,500 - 1,750

x = $750

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The inequality that give the number of logic boards that will give a profit for the product is profit = x($479-$109)-$323,902.

Given that, a company produces a logic board for computers. The annual fixed cost for the board is $323,902, and the variable cost is $109 per board. So, we have to write an inequality which will gives the number of logic boards that will give a profit for the product, if the logic board sells for $479.

We simply use the formula that,

profit + annual fixed cost = number of logic board sold x (logic board sales price-variable cost of logic board)

Let the number of logic board sold be x.

profit + $323,902 = x($479-$109)

profit = x($479-$109)-$323,902

Therefore, we can denote the above listed information in profit = x($479-$109)-$323,902 term. This is the required answer.

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Answer:

Transitive property for equality

Step-by-step explanation:

If angle BAD=4x° and angle DAC=(3x+8)° then the equation showing angle BAC is equal to (7x+8)°.

Given that angle BAD=4x° and angle DAC=(3x+8)°.

We are required to find the equation showing the angle BAC.

Angle is basically the figure formed by two rays which is called the sides of the angle and sharing a common endpoint called the vertex of the angle.

∠BAD=4x° and ∠DAC=(3x+8)°

To find the equation showing angle BAC we have to just add the two expressions given in the equation.

∠BAC=∠BAD+∠DAC

∠BAC=4x+3x+8

∠BAC=(7x+8)°

Hence if angle BAD=4x° and angle DAC=(3x+8)° then the equation showing angle BAC is equal to (7x+8)°.

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Answer: 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

The easiest way to solve this is to make them all common denominators.

The common denominator for this problem is 24.

Change the denominators:

1/4  = 6/24

4/12 = 8/24

3/8 = 9/24

2/6 = 8/24

This way it is easier to see which one is smaller and closest to 0. In this case, it is 6/24 or 1/4 because 6/24 is the smallest out of all of them.

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{(2 {)}^{3}(2 {)}^{4} }{(2 {)}^{5} } [/tex]

→[tex] {2}^{3 + 4 + 5} [/tex]

→[tex] {2}^{2} = 4[/tex]

Answer: I think the answer you are looming for is 80 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 x 10 = 40

To double means to multiply by 2 so

40 x 2 = 80

The tax equivalent value will be $3243. The third option is correct

Tax bracket Kent Fuller is currently in is 26 percent

Nontaxable employee benefits value: $2400

The return that a taxable benefit would need to provide in order to match the yield on a comparable tax-exempt benefit is known as the tax-equivalent value. This is very useful for investors to compare the return between a tax-free and a taxable alternative.

Finding out the tax equivalent value using the formula:

Tax equivalent value = Tax exempt value/(1 - Tax Rate)

Tax equivalent value = 2400/(1 - 0.26)

= 2400/0.74

Tax equivalent value = 3243.24 or 3243

Therefore, the tax equivalent value will be $3243. Hence, the third option is correct

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If the amount of loan taken in community college is $2900 and the rate of interest is 6.8% then the amount of interest that will accrue for loan 1 is $364.

Given that the amount of loan in community college is $2900 and the rate of interest is 6.8%.

We are required to find the amount of interest that will accrue for

loan 1.

Compound interest is the amount of interest that is calculated on the aggregate of principal and interest of previous years.

Compounded amount=P[tex](1+r)^{n}[/tex]

To find out the amount of interest for the loan 1,we have to find the compounded amount after 2 years.

Compounded amount=2600([tex](1+0.068)^{2}[/tex]

=2600*[tex](1.068)^{2}[/tex]

=2600*1.14

=$2964

Interest=2964-2600=$364

Hence if the amount of loan in community college is $2900 and the rate of interest is 6.8% then the amount of interest that will accrue for loan 1 is $364.

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Answer:

I don't know it this question

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

fraction..............................

or improper fraction.

Using proportions, it is found that:

A proportion is a fraction of a total amount, and the measures are related using a rule of three. Due to this, relations between variables, either direct(when both increase or both decrease) or inverse proportional(when one increases and the other decreases, or vice versa), can be built to find the desired measures in the problem, or equations to find these measures.

Before beginning the problem, we have that the symbol # represents a pound, which has 16 ounces.

The remaining fillets weight 4 # 15 oz = 4 pounds + 15/16 of a pound. Hence, considering the cost of $2.74 per pound:

4 x 2.74 + 15/16 x 2.74 = $13.53.

The total value of the remaining fillets is of $13.53.

The price per pound is still the same, of $2.54.

The yield is of 4 pounds + 15/16 of a pound = 4.9375 pounds out of 7 + 6/16 = 7.375 pounds, hence the percentage is:

4.9375/7.375 x 100% = 66.95%.

The salmon’s yield percentage is of 66.95%.

Hence, for 6 + 14/16 = 6.875 pounds, the yield would be of:

0.6695 x 6.875 = 4.6 pounds.

You would expect to yield 4.6 pounds of boneless salmon fillet from the next salmon weighing 6 # 14 oz.

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The rent option will cost 120 more dollars than the outright cost of the computer .

The outright cost of the computer is $864.

The store also offers a rent to own option which will cost $41 per week for 24 weeks.

Therefore, the total cost for the rent option is as follows:

cost of the computer for rent option = 41 × 24

cost of the computer for rent option = 984 dollars

Therefore,

difference in cost = 984  - 864

difference in cost = 120 dollars

Therefore, the rent option will cost 120 more dollars than the outright cost of the computer.

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Answer:

38363

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 264.6 miles

Step-by-step explanation: Let's put the info we got from the problem into an equation. If the car is rented for three days, we need to multiply 27.95 by 3, which will give us 83.85. Now let's use the equation 150=83.85 + 0.25x, where x represents miles. Subtract 83.85 from both sides and we get 66.15 = 0.25x. Now divide both sides by 0.25 and we get x = 264.6.

Answer:

264 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 27.95x + 0.25n where:

y = budget

x = days rented

n = miles driven

150 = 27.95(3) + 0.25n

150 = 83.85 + 0.25n

150 - 83. 85 = 0.25n

66.15 = 0.25n

66.15 / 0.25 = n

n = 264.6 miles

27.95(3) + 0.25(246.6) = $150

Highest common factor of 8n + 3 and 5n + 4 is either 1 or 17 for all n and its sum is 18

what is greatest integer divisor ?

The greatest common divisor (GCD) of two nonzero integers a and b is the greatest positive integer d such that d is a divisor of both a and b; that is, there are integers e and f such that a = de and b = df, and d is the largest such integer. The GCD of a and b is generally denoted gcd(a, b).

For each value of 1 ≤ n ≤ 100, the highest common factor of 8n + 3 and 5n + 4 is written down. What is the sum of these values

Let gcd(8n + 3, 5n + 4) = d

⟹d|8n+3∧d|5n+4

⟹d|8(5n+4)−5(8n+3)

⟹d|17

Therefore highest common factor of 8n + 3 and 5n + 4 is either 1 or 17 for all n and its sum is 18

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The sample space for the event is given by {2,3,4}

The sample space is a collection of all possible outcomes of an experiment. The sample space is used in probability where the it represents all possible outcomes.

a) In the spinner there are only three possibilities.

The sample space is represented by  {2,3,4} .

b)The favorable outcomes in this case is  2 and 4.

Hence the number of favorable outcome is 2.

c)There is only 1 unfavorable outcome which is 3.

d)The total number of possible outcomes is 3 , as we see in the sample space there are 3 numbers.

e)The probability is defined as the fraction of favorable outcome to the

total number of outcome. Therefore the probability in this case is given

by  [tex]P(even)=\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

f) The ratio of the number of possible outcomes to the number of possible outcomes that do not occur is known as the odds in favor.

Therefore odds in favor = 2:1

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Answer:

Equation of line is y = 8 as it is horizontal

Answer: State A has 54 counties and B has 52 counties

Step-by-step explanation: Since the number of counties are even integers, I did a guess and check. Divided 106 by two to get 53. Then realized that if you take away 1 from on of the 53's and add it to the other, they become consecutive even integers 52 and 54

Answer:

40°

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that

[tex]m\angle 2=28^{\circ}+m\angle 1[/tex]

Thus, by the angle addition postulate,

[tex]28+m\angle 1+m\angle 1=108^{\circ} \\ \\ 2m\angle 1=80^{\circ} \\ \\ m\angle 1=40^{\circ}[/tex]

Briana will take minutes to fill an order alone at her clothing boutique is 12 minutes.

Eva takes to fill an online order at her clothing boutique. = 6 minutes

If Eva and Briana fill an order together = 4 minutes

Briana will take minutes to fill an order alone at her clothing boutique = X minutes.

then the equation will be :

1/6 + 1/x = 1/4

1/x =  1/4 -  1/6

now solve equation by taking LCM

1/x = (6-4)/4x6

1/x = 2/24

1/x = 1/12

x = 12

so the value of x is 12

Briana will take minutes to fill an order alone at her clothing boutique is 12 minutes.

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Option a is correct. f(x) has an inverse function because its graph passes the horizontal line test.

An inverse function is a function that serves to undo another function. That is, if f(x) produces y, then putting y into the inverse of f produces the output x.

From the graph we can see that the horizontal lines intersect less than 2 points, this shows that the f(x) has an inverse.

From the graph, it gets to know.

Hence from the given graph we get to know that f(x) is the inverse function.

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The second matrix in the definition of [tex]f[/tex] is singular, since

[tex]\sin(\pi) = -\cos\left(\dfrac\pi2\right) = \tan(\pi) = 0[/tex]

[tex]\cos\left(\theta+\dfrac\pi4\right) = \sin\left(\dfrac\pi2 - \left(\theta+\dfrac\pi4\right)\right) = \sin\left(\dfrac\pi4-\theta\right)=-\sin\left(\theta-\dfrac\pi4\right)[/tex]

[tex]\cot\left(\theta+\dfrac\pi4\right) = \tan\left(\dfrac\pi2 - \left(\theta+\dfrac\pi4\right)\right) = \tan\left(\dfrac\pi4 - \theta\right) = -\tan\left(\theta-\dfrac\pi4\right)[/tex]

[tex]\ln\left(\dfrac4\pi\right) = -\ln\left(\dfrac\pi4\right)[/tex]

In other words, it's antisymmetric; [tex]A^\top=-A[/tex]. It's easy to show that [tex]\det(A)=0[/tex] if [tex]A[/tex] is 3x3 and antisymmetric.

The other determinant reduces to

[tex]\begin{vmatrix}1 & \sin(\theta) & 1 \\ - \sin(\theta) & 1 & \sin(\theta) \\ -1 & -\sin(\theta) & 1 \end{vmatrix} = 2 + 2\sin^2(\theta)[/tex]

Hence

[tex]f(\theta) = 1 + \sin^2(\theta) \implies f\left(\dfrac\pi2\right) = 1 + \cos^2(\theta)[/tex]

With [tex]g[/tex] defined on [tex]\left[0,\frac\pi2\right][/tex], both [tex]\sin(\theta)[/tex] and [tex]\cos(\theta)[/tex] are non-negative. So

[tex]g(\theta) = \sqrt{f(\theta)-1} + \sqrt{f\left(\dfrac\pi2-\theta\right)-1} \\\\ ~~~~ = \sqrt{\sin^2(\theta)} + \sqrt{\cos^2(\theta)} \\\\ ~~~~ = |\sin(\theta)| + |\cos(\theta)| \\\\ ~~~~ = \sin(\theta) + \cos(\theta) \\\\ ~~~~ = \sqrt2\,\sin\left(\theta + \dfrac\pi4\right)[/tex]

which is maximized at [tex]t=\frac\pi4[/tex] with a value of [tex]\sqrt2\,\sin\left(\frac\pi2\right)=\sqrt2[/tex], and minimized at [tex]t=0[/tex] and [tex]t=\frac\pi2[/tex] with a value of [tex]\sqrt2\,\sin\left(\frac{3\pi}4\right)=1[/tex].

Edit: The rest of my answer wouldn't fit. Continued in attachment.

Answer:

This is the answer :20 5/6 and 102.2

The slope of a linear demand curve is negative

The demand curve's negative slope indicates that there is an inverse link between price and demand.

It is true that the demand curve's negative slope indicates an inverse link between price and quantity desired. According to the demand curve, demand declines as prices increase and rises as prices decrease.

This statement is false since it only applies to Giffen products, where the demand curve has a positive slope and a direct correlation between price and quantity desired.

Because unit requests rise when prices decrease and decline when prices rise, the demand curve often slopes downward (i.e., is negative). Demand increases when prices are low, but demand decreases when prices are high.

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