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Answer:

8 x 9 − 28 x 8 + 29

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Hornell

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.989 = 98.9% probability that Mr. Bateman’s class has more students who pass on the first try

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution, the binomial approximation to the normal and subtraction of normal distributions.

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Subtraction of normal distributions:

When two normal variables are subtracted, the mean is the subtraction of the means while the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of the variances.

Among Mr. Adams’s students, 68% pass the driving test on the first try. Sample of 40.

This means that [tex]p = 0.68, n = 40[/tex].

[tex]\mu_A = np = 40*0.64 = 27.2[/tex]

[tex]s_A = \sqrt{40*0.68*0.32} = 2.95[/tex]

74% of Mr. Bateman’s students pass the driving test on the first try. Sample of 50:

[tex]p = 0.74, n = 50[/tex]

[tex]\mu_B = np = 50*0.74 = 37[/tex]

[tex]s_B = \sqrt{50*0.74*0.26} = 3.1016[/tex]

What is the probability that Mr. Bateman’s class has more students who pass on the first try?

This is the probability that B - A is greater than 0.

Distribution B - A:

Mean:

[tex]\mu = \mu_B - \mu_A = 37 - 27.2 = 9.8[/tex]

Standard deviation:

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{s_A^2 + s_B^2} = \sqrt{2.95^2 + 3.1016^2} = 4.28[/tex]

Probability of being larger than 0:

1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 0. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{0 - 9.8}{4.28}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.29[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.29[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.011

1 - 0.011 = 0.989

0.989 = 98.9% probability that Mr. Bateman’s class has more students who pass on the first try

Answer:

0.734, c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

maybe b?

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the surface area of a 3D composite object, find the outside surface area of each object and then add the surface areas together. It could also be broken into one on top and one on the bottom. Determine the surface area of the outside faces of the right prism.

Answer:

charlie has 624.32 more than andy

Step-by-step explanation:

im smart trust

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

10/4= 2 r 2

Answer: it’s 2.5, with a remainder it’s 2 r2

Step-by-step explanation:

investing $27,000 in an account paying 7.25% interest compounded quarterly.

What will Jamie's account balance be in 14 years?

Answer:

$74,495.30

Jamie's account balance will be $73,828.74 after 14 years.

Compound interest is the addition of interest to the principal sum of a loan or deposit, or in other words, interest on principal plus interest.

Here, Principal = $27,000

         Rate of interest = 7.25% compounded quarterly

                                    = 0.0725/4 = 0.018125 per annum

         Time = 14 years or 56 quarters

Now, A = P(1+i)ⁿ

        A = 27000(1+0.018125)⁵⁶

        A = 27000 X 2.7343

        A = 73828.74

Thus, Jamie's account balance will be $73,828.74 after 14 years.

Learn more about Compound Interest from:

https://brainly.com/question/14295570

#SPJ2

Answer:

565.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Cone=1/3bh

B is pir^2

so that means b=pi36 (6*6 =36)

36*15/3 is 565.2

Answer:

1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

8/10 x 2

2 divides 10

8/5

8 divided by 5=1.6

please give me branliyest

Answer:

divide by 1k

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Multiply by 1,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Since,

1 litre = 1000ml

Hence,

3.2 litre = 3.2 × 1000 ml = 3200 ml

So,

Option B that is to Multiply by 1000 is correct.

Answer:

5/13

Step-by-step explanation:

1. We are given tan(x)=5/12 .....(2)

2. On comparing the quantities we get that p=5 and b=12

3. We require the value of hypotenuse(h),

for this we apply the Pythagoreum theorum: p^2+b^2=h^2

⇒h^2=5^2+12^2

⇒h^2=25+144

⇒h^2=169

⇒ h=√169

⇒ h=13

Sin=p/h

p=5

h=13

Sin=5/13

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It works nicely to let a calculator or spreadsheet figure the payment and loan values. The graphing calculator work is attached.

Answer:

9% payments: $563.24

7% payments: $494.75

monthly savings: $68.49

9% total repaid: $202,764.90

7% total repaid: $148,423.63

savings: $54,341.27

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3.45

Step-by-step explanation:

calculator

Answer:

16.8 km

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter is the sum of all sides.

For a rectangle , perimeter = lenght + lenght + base + base

Perimeter = 5.2 + 5.2 + 3.2 + 3.2

Perimeter = 16.8 km

Answer:3

Hope this helps

Answer:

4(x+8) OR 4x+32

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+(4*3.75)+(4*4.25)

There are four people, so there are four tickets, four drinks, and four pieces of candy, so everything must be multiplied by four. Next, you need to either factor or simplify the equation.

If you want to factor it, the answer would be 4(x+8)

If you want it simplified, it would be 4x+32

Answer:

2 are left over

since 7 goes into 30 4 times which makes 28 books. Meaning 2 are going to be left over

Answer:

29.4

Step-by-step explanation:

then convert to whole number

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

240 x 1/3 = 240/3 = 80

so the answer is: the product is less than 99

Answer:

33.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

(279,000 - 186,000) / 279,000 = 0.33333333333

0.33333333333*100= 33.3333333333

Formula used:

[tex]V_{2} -V_{1}[/tex] / [tex]V_{2}[/tex] × 100

V2= 279,000

V1= 186,000

The approximate percentage of the decrease in value​ of the house is 33.33%.

Purchase price of the house = $279,000

Appraisal cost of the house = $186,000

The percentage is the value per hundred.

The percent of the decrease in value​ = (279000-186000)/279000 *100

The percent of the decrease in value​ =(93000/279000) *100

The percent of the decrease in value​ =33.33%

Hence, the approximate percentage of the decrease in value​ of the house is 33.33%.

To get more about percentages visit:

https://brainly.com/question/24304697

Answer:

I think it is the first one NOQ AND MLJ

Answer:

Use Pythagorean Theorem.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find any side of a right angled triangle, we use Pythagorean Theorem. It states that the square of hypotenuse is equal to the sum of squares of it's sides.

Let hypotenuse is a

Perpendicular is b

and base is c

According to the theorem:

a²= b² + c²

Add values and solve for the unknown variable / side.

If you had added the problem, I would have elaborated more but still this will help you out.

Answer:

I think you mean area, but acres

Answer:

A-0.125

B-15%

C- I think .15 would

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry if i am incorrect

Answer:

A=.125

B=.14

Step-by-step explanation:

C=.15 would give him more candy.

Answer:

x=.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2x is the greatest common factor.

Step-by-step explanation:

Looking for what they have in common and what is the highest number they can both go into.

Answer:

2/1 4/2 6/3 10/5 12/6 14/7 16/9 18/9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:157

Step-by-step explanation: