For those who have long-term medical issues such asplenia, vaccinations are very important.
There is a lifelong increase in the chance of developing life-threatening infections after splenectomy.Despite the extremely low danger (less than 1%), you can take the following precautions to safeguard your health:Vaccinate yourself.Record every vaccination you receive. Make sure each healthcare practitioner is aware if you have more than one. Inform your primary care physician of any illness as soon as possible.Wear a medical alert bracelet or keep a medical alert card that shows you've had your spleen removed with you at all times.Inform your primary care doctor that you don't have a spleen.Immediately inform your primary care provider of any fever or illness.Take antibiotics before and within 24 hours of any invasive medical procedure, including surgery, catheterization, and endoscopy.So, it is important for asplenic individuals to consult a doctor before getting vaccinated.
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the nurse is explaining the recommended dietary allowances (rdas) to a client seeking nutritional counseling. how would the nurse describe rdas?
The nurse is explaining the recommended dietary allowances (RDAs) to a client seeking nutritional counseling.
What are RDAs?The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) for critical nutrients have been assessed by the Food and Nutrition Board to be sufficient to cover the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy individuals.
History of RDAs.The first Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) were published in 1943, during World War II, with the stated purpose of “establishing criteria to serve as a target for appropriate nutrition.” According to “newer results,” it indicated the “recommended daily intakes for the major nutritional needs for people of different ages” (NRC, 1943).
The history of how the RDAs were developed is explained in-depth by the first chair of the Committee on Recommended Dietary Allowances (Roberts, 1958). Updates have been made to the original article.
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the nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids) who is receiving didanosine. the nurse determines that the client may have the medication discontinued by the primary health care provider (phcp) if which significantly elevated result is noted?
If the serum amylase levels are elevated, the primary healthcare provider may have the medicine discontinued.
What is didanosine?
Didanosine is a drug that is used to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in combination with other drugs. Didanosine belongs to the category of drugs known as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). It functions by lowering the level of HIV in the blood. Didanosine does not treat HIV, but it may lessen your risk of getting AIDS and other HIV-related diseases such as severe infections or cancer.
Didanosine may result in severe or perhaps fatal pancreatitis (swelling of the pancreas). If you consume or have ever consumed excessive amounts of alcohol, as well as if you currently have or have ever had pancreatitis, pancreatic, or kidney problems, let your doctor know right away. If you have any of the following symptoms, such as stomach discomfort or swelling, nausea, vomiting, or fever.
Therefore, if the serum amylase levels are elevated, the medicine will be discontinued.
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the health care providor prescribes metformin as monotherapy for the client with type 2 diabetes. the nurse will teach the client to monitor for which adverse effect
The client should be informed about (4) Gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances as a side effect.
Metformin's most frequent adverse reaction is GI distress, which includes reduced appetite, nausea, and diarrhea. These often get better with time. Due to the medicine's decreased appetite, customers actually lose an average of 7 to 8 pounds while taking it.
This prescription does not induce weight gain. Hypoglycemia might have negative effects. The third option has nothing to do with taking this drug. Up to 25% of persons, according to studies, have these adverse effects, but they are often moderate and acceptable. Only 5% of patients get GI issues severe enough to need stopping metformin treatment.
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Question correction:
The health care providor prescribes metformin as monotherapy for the client with type 2 diabetes. the nurse will teach the client to monitor for which adverse effect:
1. Weight gain
2. Hypoglycemia
3. Flushing and palpitations
4. Gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances
a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is ""fighting"" the ventilator. which action should the nurse take first?
The nurse should firstly try to reduce the anxiety of the patient who is anxious and is ""fighting"" the ventilator and teach about how to breath with the mechanical ventilation on.
Anxiety is the response to stress. The person suffers with extreme tension and fear of something. The general symptoms of anxiety are: nervousness, breathlessness, sweating, trembling, sudden weakness, etc.
Mechanical ventilation is the process of providing artificial breaths to the patient when he./she is unable to breathe on their own. This is usually required when a person has some severe disease or right after the surgery. The ventilation can be accompanied by severe infections.
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a patient's blood transfusion has been hanging for 2 hours. the patient is complaining of a raised itchy rash and shortness of breath; she is wheezing, anxious, and very
Findings are congruent with Allergic transfusion reaction for a client who is complaining of a raised, itchy rash and shortness of breath, and is wheezing, anxious, and very restless.
Fever, chills, urticaria (hives), and itching are among the most typical warning signs and symptoms of Allergic transfusion reaction. Certain symptoms go away with little to no therapy. However, signs of a more serious response include respiratory difficulty, a high temperature, hypotension (low blood pressure), and crimson urine (hemoglobinuria).
(A) The signs and symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion response include fever, chills, chest discomfort, hypotension, and tachypnea. (B) A febrile transfusion response is characterized by a fever, chills, and headache. (C) Pulmonary crackles, dyspnea, and cough are signs of circulatory overload. Wheezing, anxiety, urticaria, and pruritus are signs of an allergic transfusion response (D).
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Question correction:
A client's transfusion of packed red blood cells has been infusing for 2 hours. She is complaining of a raised, itchy rash and shortness of breath. She is wheezing, anxious, and very restless. The nurse knows these assessment findings are congruent with:
A. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Febrile transfusion reaction
C. Circulatory overload
D. Allergic transfusion reaction
Submit your essay on the causes and treatment of skin cancer.Have 3 references two from a article and the last one doesn’t matter where
Answer:
bbbbbbbbbbbbb
Explanation:
Answer:
I know I'm late but I just finished this and wanted to leave this here for anyone who might need it <3
accomplishments that prepare a graduate student for an advanced nursing role (minimum of three items):
The major accomplishment to prepare the graduate student is obtaining a certification in the specified choice, and obtaining the Master’s Degree in Nursing Profession. Moreover, another accomplishment is working with teams and collaborating with different professionals. Leadership and problem-solving abilities should also be key competencies that are to be accomplished in the masters training program. These abilities help to ensure the performance and practice are of vital perfect.
A critical leadership skill in nursing is the ability to evolve and adapt to the constant changes in the health care industry. Nurse leaders must face the uncertainty of both their day-to-day and the rapidly changing landscape of medicine. Plus, leaders must effectively communicate these changes to their subordinates.
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a pediatric nurse is talking to parents of a newly admitted toddler. while taking the health history, the father stops the nurse in the middle of a question and says sternly that he is the only one to answer the questions. this form of dysfunction demonstrates a problem with what part of the family structure?
A pediatric nurse is talking to parents of a newly admitted toddler. While taking the health history, the father stops the nurse in the middle of a question and says sternly that he is the only one to answer the questions. this form of dysfunction demonstrates a problem with the power structure of the family.
What is the power structure of the family?The power structure of family plays a huge role in the health functioning of the family. Power is the ability to control, influence or change the behavior of another person. It is related to resources; the person having control on the resources is considered to be the powerful one in the family.
There are three types of power structures:
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a nurse assesses an oncology client with stomatitis during a chemotherapy session. which nursing intervention would most likely decrease the pain associated with stomatitis?
To decrease the pain associated with stomatitis, provide a solution of viscous lidocaine for use as a mouth rinse as it would help to numb the skin of mouth.
What is stomatitis?Stomatitis is a generalized term which is used for a inflamed and sore mouth.Stomatitis can disturb an individual's capacity to eat, talk, and rest.It leads to painful swelling and injuries inside the mouth.Stomatitis can happen anyplace in the mouth, including within the cheeks, gums, tongue, lips, and sense of taste.There can be 2 types of Stomatitis: Canker Sores and Cold Sores.Canker sores can be agonizing, lasting for 5 to 10 days and will quite often return. These are by and large not related with fever.These might be caused because of drugs, injury to the mouth, stress, microbes or infections, absence of rest, citrus products, chocolate, coffee, etc.Cold sores are normally agonizing and generally go away in 7 to 10 days. These might be related to the chill or influenza-like side effects.Lidocaine is a sedative. It causes loss of feeling in the skin and encompassing tissues.It can treat irregular heartbeats (arrhythmias). It can likewise ease pain and numb the skin.Learn more about stomatitis here:
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assess the part the agency for healthcare research and quality (ahrq) plays in health care information systems acquisition.
Assess the part the agency for healthcare research and quality (ahrq) plays in health care information systems acquisition and its objective is to create evidence that makes health care safer.
What is healthcare?Healthcare sector is the most growing sector now a days. Health care is defined as the whole procedure which includes prevention of the disease, diagnosis of the disease, and treatment of the disease. Health care is practiced and run on its full pledge by the help of healthcare workers and doctors.
The sectors which came in category of healthcare is medicine, midwifery, optometry, audiology, oncology, occupational therapy, and psychology. Healthcare is the practice or effort to achieve the patient's health both physical, emotional as well as mental.
Therefore,Assess the part the agency for healthcare research and quality (ahrq) plays in health care information systems acquisition and its objective is to create evidence that makes health care safer.
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32 year old g2p1 woman presents at 42 weeks gestation her prenatal course has been uncomplicated and she had a first
Admit for induction is the next best step in the management of the patient at 42 weeks gestation which has cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
The best course of treatment for a patient with a healthy cervix at a gestational age more than or equal to 41 weeks is delivery. Her effacement and dilatation increase the likelihood that her induction will be effective.
Comparatively to a patient who experiences spontaneous labor, inducing labor in a patient with an unfavorable cervix considerably raises the likelihood of a cesarean section. If the gestational age is known, it is not appropriate to monitor a patient who is >42 weeks with antepartum fetal testing, such as twice weekly non-stress tests with amniotic fluid index.
The management strategy, which should include labor induction at this gestational age, should not be changed by doing an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth and/or amniotic fluid volume.
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Question correction:
A 32-year-old G2P1 woman is at 42 weeks gestation. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated and she had a first trimester ultrasound confirming dates. Her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. She does not report contractions and states there is good fetal movement. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Ultrasound to assess amniotic fluid volume
B. Twice weekly non-stress test (NST) and amniotic fluid index (AFI)
C. Daily biophysical profiles
D. Admit for induction
E. Ultrasound to assess fetal growth
the nurse is preparing to teach a community class to a group of first-time parents. which information should the nurse include concerning what the pregnant woman's partner may experience as a normal response?
Pregnancy-related health issues are those that develop while a woman is pregnant. They may concern the health of the mother, the infant, or both.
Be sure to discuss any current or previous health issues with your doctor. Your healthcare practitioner might wish to alter the way your health issue is managed if you are receiving therapy for it. For instance, taking certain medications to manage health issues while pregnant may be dangerous. However, quitting necessary medications could be more dangerous than the dangers associated with becoming pregnant. Don't forget to bring up any issues you had with past pregnancies as well. You are more likely to have a typical, healthy baby if your health issues are under control and you receive quality prenatal care.It is important to consult healthcare before and during pregnancy.
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the transcendental nursing home is working on decreasing its rates of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (utis) among its patients. the improvement team predicts that if they begin providing intensive training to staff on how to place the catheters, the infection rates will improve. they devise a plan to test this idea.
Option D) Theory of knowledge
The best answer is “theory of knowing.” Deming believed that theories are the cornerstone of knowledge and that ideas must be developed, applied, and assessed in order to methodically advance knowledge.
What is Seming's theory of profound knowledge?Deming’s theory of profound knowledge, a management philosophy, is based on system theory.
It is predicated on the notion that each organization is composed of a system of interconnected individuals and operations that make up the system’s component pieces.
W. Edwards, M.D. Deming had a simple yet ground-breaking understanding of quality.
He asserted that companies that focus on improving quality will ultimately reduce expenses, as opposed to companies that focus on boosting revenue, which would do the opposite.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed citalopram and checks the client for which signs/symptoms of serotonin syndrome? select all that apply.
The symptoms of serotonin syndrome are given below:
DiarrheaAbdominal painIncreased blood pressureSerotonin syndrome can occur when you increase the dose of certain medications or start taking a new drug. It's most often caused by combining medications that contain serotonin, such as a migraine medication and an antidepressant. Some illicit drugs and dietary supplements are associated with serotonin syndrome.
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an emergency department nurse is interviewing a client who is presenting with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 2 hours ago. the client reports a history of a cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago and is taking digoxin, warfarin, and labetalol. what factor poses a threat to the client for thrombolytic therapy?
An emergency room nurse is speaking with a patient who is exhibiting symptoms of an ischemic stroke that started two hours ago. The client mentions having had a cholecystectomy six weeks prior and using labetalol, digoxin, and warfarin. What element puts the patient's thrombolytic therapy at risk?
What is ischemic stroke?
An ischemic stroke is the loss of brain tissue (cerebral infarction) brought on by insufficient oxygen and blood flow to the brain as a result of an arterial blockage. An artery leading to the brain can get blocked, frequently by a blood clot or a fatty buildup brought on by atherosclerosis, leading to an ischemic stroke.
In patients with ischemic stroke, thrombolytic therapy must be started within three hours. If the patient underwent surgery within the last 14 days, she is not qualified for thrombolytic therapy. Labetalol and digoxin do not preclude thrombolytic treatment.
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a patient has heavy skin and muscle (myogenic) that is drooping down and blocking his vision due to myogenic ptosis of the upper eyelid. the provider performed a bilateral upper blepharoplasty. what icd-10-cm code(s) is (are) reported?
In the given scenario, icd-10-cm code reported is H02.423.
What is icd-10-cm code?
The ICD-10-CM is a morbidity classification developed by the United States that is used to classify diagnoses and reasons for visits in all health care settings.
Upper eyelid drooping is caused by a muscle disorder (myogenic). Look for Ptosis/eyelid in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetical Index, which states to see Blepharoptosis.
Look for Blepharoptosis and you'll be directed to H02.423, where the sixth character indicates laterality.
The sixth character of three stands for bilateral. There is only one code for both eyelids, not two separate codes.
This, this should be the icd-10-cm code.
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anderson jj, hansen m, rowe gp, swayzee z. complication rates in diabetics with first metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis. diabet foot ankle
Overall, the first MTPJ arthrodesis is a successful and advantageous treatment for individuals with diabetes mellitus. Patients with peripheral neuropathy who have diabetes are more likely to experience minor and moderate problems.
When necessary, first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) arthrodesis has proven to be a successful surgical treatment, although it is not without risk. When compared to non-diabetic individuals, people with diabetes mellitus have a higher risk of surgical complications, which are most frequently linked to soft tissue and bone healing.
This study's goal was to assess the first MTPJ arthrodesis complication rates in diabetic individuals and compare them to the standard complication rates for the treatment. From June 2002 to August 2012, a retrospective chart analysis of 76 diabetes individuals was conducted. The research had 42 male and 44 female participants. Age, gender, bone graft integration, hemoglobin A1c, cigarette usage, body mass index, peripheral neuropathy, hallux extensions, hallux interphalangeal arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis were just a few of the numerous factors the investigators looked at and compared to the problems results. At least 24 months were spent monitoring the patient.
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despite repeated nursing interventions to improve reality orientation, a client insists that he is the commander of an alien spaceship. what is the client experiencing
The client is experiencing mental disorder as his mind is not in stable situation.
What is healthcare?Healthcare sector is the most growing sector now a days. Health care is defined as the whole procedure which includes prevention of the disease, diagnosis of the disease, and treatment of the disease. Health care is practiced and run on its full pledge by the help of healthcare workers and doctors.
The sectors which came in category of healthcare is medicine, midwifery, optometry, audiology, oncology, occupational therapy, and psychology. Healthcare is the practice or effort to achieve the patient's health both physical, emotional as well as mental.
Therefore, the client is experiencing mental disorder as his mind is not in stable situation.
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whole body massage for newborns: a report on non-invasive methodology for neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome.
Infants who were exposed to opioids in utero are at danger. Although they are frequently advised, NOWS (Neonatal Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome) and non-pharmacological techniques of care, such as swaddling and a calm atmosphere, have not been well researched. Our hypothesis was that hospitalized newborns who have been exposed to opioids can withstand full-body massage.
Infants of mothers with a history of opioid use (OUD) were enrolled in this prospective observational study, which ran from August 2017 to January 2019. From birth until they were sent home, babies received 30 minutes of full-body massage. Prior to and during the massage session, the infants' heart rate (HR), respiration rate (RR), systolic (sBP), and diastolic blood pressure (dBP) were measured.Infants exposed to opioids in utero tolerate whole-body massage quite well. After massage, infants with NOWS experienced a significant drop in their baseline HR and BP.To know more about Neonatal Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome visit:
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The nurse is preparing to administer a medication that the client takes to treat a cardiac dysrhythmia. Which site should the nurse use to assess pulse in this client?.
The site which a well trained nurse should use to assess pulse in a client in a preparation to receive treatment on cardiac dysrhythmia is apical site.
When taking care of patient with this heart disorder, healthcare providers need to give their utmost attention to it so it won't lead to bigger complications as giving treatment through the right site is one of the most important steps in improving the condition
Cardiac dysrhythmiaCardiac dysrhythmia can simply be defined as a serious health problem whereby the heart beat abnormally either too fast or too slow.
The service of healthcare workers are usually needed to improve this health condition of the heart.Generally, heart disorders are serious health conditions which can lead to the risk of death if not properly taken care of
So therefore, the site which a well trained nurse should use to assess pulse in a client in a preparation to receive treatment on cardiac dysrhythmia is apical site.
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a client with severe diarrhea is prescribed intravenous fluids, sodium bicarbonate, and antidiarrheal medication.
The patient's doctor recommends intravenous fluids, sodium bicarbonate, and an antidiarrhea drug since the patient has severe diarrhea. The nurse anticipates that the doctor will recommend loperamide.
Loperamide affects the neurons in the intestine's muscular wall, which reduces peristalsis and lengthens transit time. Since it enhances gastrointestinal motility, bisacodyl is a laxative rather than an antidiarrheal. Psyllium is a bulk laxative that encourages simple stoma transit; it is not an anti-diarrheal. Docusate sodium helps with constipation, not diarrhea; it raises the amount of water and fat in the intestines, which makes stools easier to pass.
Loperamide should only be administered to children 11 years of age or under with a doctor's prescription. Some persons should not take loperamide. If you experience severe diarrhea after taking antibiotics, avoid using loperamide. This medication may lead to issues with cardiac rhythm (eg, torsades de pointes, ventricular arrhythmias). If you or your kid has chest pain or discomfort, a rapid, slow, or irregular heartbeat, dizziness, or problems breathing, call your doctor straight once. Your risk for gastrointestinal or bowel issues may rise if you use loperamide.
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which cause woudl the nurse conclude is the underlying reason a client with conversion disorder is unable to walk
The nurse would conclude is the underlying reason a client with conversion disorder is unable to walk is if client complains that the client's left side is paralyzed.
What is conversion disorder?Conversion disorder is a mental condition in which a person has blindness, paralysis, or any other symptoms that affect the nervous system that cannot be explained by medical examination.
Some signs and symptoms of conversion disorder include:
Weakness or paralysis.Loss of balanceTremors or seizures.Vision problems.Hearing problemsDifficulty speaking, etc.In conclusion, conversion disorders are unexplainable medical diagnosis.
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physician direction of emergency medical systems (ems) emergency care, advanced life support. assign the cpt code.
Physician direction of emergency medical systems (ems) emergency care, advanced life support. assign the cpt code is 99288.
What is healthcare?Healthcare sector is the most growing sector now a days. Health care is defined as the whole procedure which includes prevention of the disease, diagnosis of the disease, and treatment of the disease. Health care is practiced and run on its full pledge by the help of healthcare workers and doctors.
The sectors which came in category of healthcare is medicine, midwifery, optometry, audiology, oncology, occupational therapy, and psychology. Healthcare is the practice or effort to achieve the patient's health both physical, emotional as well as mental.
Therefore,Physician direction of emergency medical systems (ems) emergency care, advanced life support. assign the cpt code is 99288.
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medicare part d pays for inpatient hospital critical care access, skilled nursing facility stays, hospice care, and some home health care?
The correct answer for this question is Medicare hospital insurance (Medicare part A).
Inpatient hospital treatment, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, lab tests, surgery, and home health care are all covered under Medicare Part A hospital insurance.
hospital inpatient treatment. care in a skilled nursing facility. Care provided at a nursing home, also known as skilled nursing, but not long-term or custodial care. palliative care
Unless medically required, a private room in a hospital or skilled care facility. Personalized nursing care. Personal things like razors or slipper socks, as well as a telephone or television in your room, unless the hospital or skilled care institution provides these for free to all residents.
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the nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child who has multisystem trauma due to a motor vehicle accident. the child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (tpn). what is a recommended nursing intervention for children on tpn?
Option A: The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child who has multisystem trauma due to a motor vehicle accident. The child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
The recommended nursing intervention is to check blood glucose levels frequently, such as every 4 to 6 hours, to evaluate for hyperglycemia.
What should the nurse initially do?The nurse should initially check blood glucose levels often, such as every 4 to 6 hours, in order to screen for hyperglycemia.
Throughout TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) therapy, the nurse should keep a close eye on the infusion rate and immediately alert the doctor or nurse practitioner to any changes.
Rate modifications are allowed, but they must be prescribed by a physician or nurse practitioner. If the TPN infusion is stopped or halted for any reason, the nurse should begin an infusion of a 10% dextrose solution at the same infusion rate.
TPN can be administered continuously for the full 24 hours or cyclically after it has been started, such as throughout a 12-hour period at night.
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a client arrives at the physician’s office stating dyspnea; a productive cough for thick, green sputum; respirations of 28 breaths/minute, and a temperature of 102.8° f. the nurse auscultates the lung fields, which reveal poor air exchange in the right middle lobe. the nurse suspects a right middle lobe pneumonia. to be consistent with this anticipated diagnosis, which sound, heard over the chest wall when percussing, is anticipated?
Answer:
Dull
Explanation:
Dullness replaces resonance when fluid replaces air-containing lung tissues such as occurs with pneumonia.
the nurse is assigned to clients who are having the following procedures: amniocentesis, fetal nonstress test, chorionic villus sampling, percutaneous umbilical blood sampling, and doppler assessment of fetal heart rate. for which clients will the nurse ensure that signed informed consent has been given and is in the client's record?
Amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, percutaneous umbilical blood sampling are the procedures of which the nurse will ensure that the client's signed informed consent has been given and is in the client's record.
Amniocentesis is a procedure in which amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or treatment. This fluid surrounds and protects the baby during pregnancy and contains various proteins and fetal cells. This test has small chance that will lead to miscarriage and thus informed consent form is necessary.
Chorionic villus sampling involves taking a tissue from the placenta to test for chromosomal abnormalities and certain other genetic problems. This test may also cause miscarriage.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling, this test takes fetal blood directly from the umbilical cord and is also categorized an invasive test which carries risks and complications.
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according to the institute of medicine, the five domains of health include all of the following except
According to the institute of medicine, the five domains of health include all of the following except physical movement.
The five domains of healthcare quality are safe, effective, timely, efficient, patient-centered, equitable. These are the six aims of the health care system put forth by the institute of medicine.
Safe is to keep the patients safe with the care that is intended to help them.Effective is to avoid underuse and overuse of the services so that it benefits the patient.Patient centered is to provide care which is respectful to individual patient preferences, needs and values.Timely is to avoid harmful delays for the patients and the care giver.Efficient is to avoid wastage of equipment, supplies, energy etc.Learn more about institute of medicine here:
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the healthcare provider is caring for a patient with new respiratory issues. the healthcare provider understands that which factor is the major stimuli for breathing?
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with new respiratory issues. the healthcare provider understands that Carbon dioxide levels are the major stimuli for breathing.
The act of breathing, also known as ventilation, involves moving air into and out of the lungs in order to facilitate gas exchange with the body's internal environment, primarily to expel carbon dioxide and draw in oxygen.
Our bodies' cells require fresh oxygen on a regular basis in order to make energy, thus breathing is necessary to get it to them. If these substances are not expelled, they can easily stagnate in our systems and impair essential processes. Carbon dioxide is expelled and oxygen is delivered to all of the body's cells through the mechanical and chemical processes of breathing. To gather energy to power all of its biological activities, our body needs oxygen. Carbon dioxide is leftover from that process.
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the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with essential hypertension about medication therapy with irbesartan. which client statement would indicate a need for further teaching?
The client statement that would indicate a need for further teaching is D. The medication reduces my need for exercise
What is hypertension?When blood pressure is excessively high, it is called hypertension. Usually, high blood pressure comes on gradually. Unhealthy lifestyle decisions, such as not engaging in adequate regular physical activity, can contribute to it.
Obesity and certain medical problems like diabetes might raise one's risk of acquiring high blood pressure.
In this case, the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with essential hypertension about medication therapy with irbesartan.
It should be noted that in this case,the medication doesn't reduce the need for exercise. Therefore, the correct option is D.
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The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with essential hypertension about medication therapy with irbesartan. Which client statement would indicate a need for further teaching?
A) I will take the medication each morning
B) I should stop smoking and drinking caffeine
C) I will monitor my blood pressure frequently
D) The medication reduces my need for exercise