Answer: chemical change
Explanation:
Explain how a brand new DNA strand can be formed from an “old” strand of DNA
Answer:
Explanation:
The process by which a new DNA strand is formed from an "old" strand of DNA is called DNA replication. During DNA replication, the two strands of DNA that make up the double helix unwind and separate. Each separated strand serves as a template for the creation of a new complementary strand.
The enzymes responsible for DNA replication, called DNA polymerases, attach to the separated strands and begin building new strands of DNA by adding complementary nucleotides. The nucleotides that are added are determined by the base-pairing rules: adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C).
The new strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction, which means that nucleotides are added to the 3' end of the growing strand. The DNA polymerase moves along the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction, adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand.
As the new strand is being synthesized, it is continuously paired with the old template strand, which serves as a guide for the DNA polymerase. The end result is two identical DNA molecules, each with one "old" and one "new" strand.
To conclude, the process of DNA replication allows for the faithful transmission of genetic information from one generation of cells to the next, ensuring that each new cell has a complete and accurate copy of the genetic material.
What discovery did NOT help to improve population growth
Answer:
Human population growth impacts the Earth system in a variety of ways, including: Increasing the extraction of resources from the environment. These resources include fossil fuels (oil, gas, and coal), minerals, trees, water, and wildlife, especially in the oceans.
Explanation:
giving options next time would be better
a large object, such as a tree trunk, will cause a. firing of neurons in a number of different columns. b. a limited number of neurons to fire in only one ocular dominance column. c. every neuron in one location column to fire, but no firing in any other column. d. every neuron in an orientation column to fire, but not in the location columns.
Answer:
Explanation:
a. firing of neurons in a number of different columns.
When an object such as a tree trunk is perceived by the visual system, it activates a complex network of neurons that are specialized to process different features of the visual stimulus. The neurons in the primary visual cortex are organized into columns, each of which responds to a specific feature of the stimulus, such as orientation, direction of motion, or color. Therefore, when a large object is perceived, it will activate neurons in multiple columns that are tuned to different features of the stimulus, rather than being limited to only one column or type of neuron.
What describes a use for restriction enzymes?
Responses
making copies of DNA sequences
repairing breaks in the backbone of a DNA molecule
cutting DNA strands at specific locations
making DNA molecules glow
Cutting DNA strands at specific locations. The term "restriction enzymes" refers to enzymes that break DNA. Each enzyme locates one or a limited number of target sequences and cleaves DNA at those locations.
At the endpoints of their frequently staggered cuts, many restriction enzymes generate single-stranded DNA overhangs.
There are restriction enzymes in bacteria (and other prokaryotes). They may recognise and bind to restrictions sites, which are specific DNA sequences. There are just a few or one restriction site(s) that each restriction enzyme can recognise. Once it finds its target sequence, a restriction enzyme will cut a double strand of DNA. The cut usually occurs at or near the point of constriction and has a clean, consistent pattern. Not always do restriction enzymes cause sticky ends.They can also cause blunt cutters.
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Percentage of maximum life span
Which survivorship strategy is used by the type Il species?
A. Dying in equal numbers throughout life
B. Dying mostly as mature adults
C. Having a large number of offspring
D. Having a high death rate early in life
which protein is observed exclusively in association with eukaryotic dna replication? group of answer choices dna polymerase dna gyrase single-strand binding proteins telomerase
The protein observed exclusively in association with eukaryotic DNA replication is telomerase.
Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein enzyme that is usually found in eukaryotic cells. This protein is found exclusively in association with eukaryotic DNA replication. In humans, telomerase comprises of a RNA molecule (TERC) and a protein (TERT). DNA replication is the process of duplicating a DNA molecule. This process takes place in all living organisms and is the foundation of biological inheritance. It is the biological process of creating two identical replicas of DNA from one original DNA molecule.
The process of DNA replication begins when the enzyme helicase unwinds the DNA molecule from its double-stranded form. Then, the DNA polymerase enzyme reads the exposed nucleotides and creates a new complementary strand by bonding them together.
The replication of DNA is essential to the process of cell division. During cell division, the replicated DNA molecules are segregated to form two daughter cells, each containing an identical copy of the original DNA molecule. This is important because it ensures that the genetic information is accurately transmitted from one generation to the next. Without DNA replication, the information that defines a particular organism would be lost over time.
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restriction-digested dna from two organisms is analyzed by southern blotting. restriction fragments of 2.0 and 3.5 kb are observed on the southern blot of one organism, and bands of 2.0 and 3.0 kb are observed for the other. what are the genotypes of these organisms?
The restriction-digested DNA from two organisms is analyzed by Southern blotting; restriction fragments of 2.0 and 3.5 kb are observed.
On the Southern blot of one organism the genotypes of these organisms are that they are heterozygous for a restriction site.
Southern blotting is a molecular biology technique used to identify specific DNA sequences in a sample. It was developed by the British biochemist Edwin Southern in 1975.
The method combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization.
The Southern blot technique includes four steps.
1. Restriction digestion: The first step is to digest the DNA sample with a restriction enzyme that cuts the DNA at specific sequence locations. The digestion creates DNA fragments of different lengths.
2. Gel electrophoresis: After restriction digestion, the DNA fragments are separated by size via electrophoresis, which separates the DNA fragments on the basis of their charge, size, and shape.
3. DNA transfer: The separated DNA fragments are transferred from the electrophoresis gel onto a nitrocellulose or nylon membrane, which is a process called blotting.
4. Hybridization: The membrane with the transferred DNA fragments is probed with a labeled DNA probe that is complementary to the target sequence. The hybridization process forms a stable bond between the labeled probe and the target DNA sequence.
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In humans, how has that term been historically modified?
In humans, the term "race" has been historically modified. This term has been used to categorize people into different groups based on their physical characteristics such as skin color, hair texture, and facial features.
However, this categorization has been found to be biologically meaningless as there is more genetic variation within these groups than between them. Additionally, this categorization has been used to justify discriminatory practices such as slavery, segregation, and genocide.
Therefore, it is important to recognize the flawed nature of this term and move towards a more inclusive and equitable understanding of human diversity. This can be achieved through promoting cultural awareness, celebrating differences, and recognizing the humanity of all individuals regardless of their physical characteristics.
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in addition to the important roles of natural variability and natural selection in the process of evolution, it is also important that
In addition to the important roles of natural variability and natural selection in the process of evolution, it is also important that genetic drift plays a role.
There are several factors involved in the process of evolution, and natural variability and natural selection are two of the most important. Natural variability refers to the fact that no two individuals within a species are exactly alike, and this variation can give some individuals a survival advantage over others. Natural selection then works to increase the frequency of advantageous traits within a population over time.
However, there is another factor that plays a role in the process of evolution, and that is genetic drift.
Genetic drift refers to the random changes in gene frequency that can occur within a population due to chance events. This can have significant effects on the genetic makeup of a population over time, and can even lead to the creation of new species.In addition to these factors, other important factors that can contribute to the process of evolution include gene flow, mutation, and non-random mating. All of these factors can influence the genetic makeup of a population over time, leading to the creation of new species or the extinction of existing ones.
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what does evolutionary fitness measure? what does evolutionary fitness measure? population size longevity relative reproductive success physical health
Evolutionary fitness measures relative reproductive success.
Evolutionary fitness measures the relative reproductive success of a population or organism in a given environment. In general, it is the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in a specific environment. It is defined as the ability of an organism to pass on its genetic traits to the next generation relative to other members of the same species. Evolutionary fitness can be divided into two categories: absolute and relative.
Absolute fitness measures the organism's reproductive success in a particular environment, while relative fitness measures the organism's reproductive success relative to other members of the population.
Relative reproductive success measures the reproductive success of one individual in comparison to the rest of the population. This means that the fitness of an individual is relative to that of other individuals in the same population. It is expressed as the ratio of the number of offspring produced by the individual to the average number of offspring produced by the population. Therefore, the higher the relative reproductive success of an individual, the higher its evolutionary fitness.
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the condition in which one copy of a gene is lost to a deletion, and a remaining recessive allele is expressed is called
A homozygous deletion, or homozygous gene deletion, occurs when one duplicate of a gene is deleted due to deletion and the surviving recessive allele is produced.
In this case, a person has lost one duplicate of a gene due to deletion, and the surviving copy of the gene is recessive, which means it is only expressed when both versions of the gene are the same. (i.e., homozygous). As a consequence, the person will exhibit the characteristic linked to the recessive gene.
When a deleted gene is required for proper bodily growth or function, homozygous deletions can result in genetic diseases.
Individuals with cystic fibrosis, for example, have a homozygous deletion in the CFTR gene, which results in the creation of a faulty protein that interferes with the operation of the lungs, liver, and other systems.
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manx cats lack tails, due to a recessive lethal allele. if a manx cat is crossed to a cat with a normal tail, what proportion of the kittens are expected to be tail-less?
Half of the kittens produced from crossing a Manx cat with a cat with a normal tail would be expected to be tail-less.
This is due to the fact that the Manx cat has a recessive lethal allele, meaning it only expresses the tail-less phenotype when two alleles for this trait are present.
When two different alleles are present, as in the case of a Manx cat crossed with a cat with a normal tail, the offspring will have one of three possible genotypes: the Manx cat's homozygous genotype (two copies of the recessive lethal allele), the cat with a normal tail's homozygous genotype (two copies of the normal allele), or a heterozygous genotype (one copy of each allele).
Since the heterozygous genotype will result in the expression of the recessive phenotype, the expected proportion of tail-less kittens from this cross would be 50%.
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An ecosystem contains more individuals of a certain species than it can support. Which of the following describes if natural selection will occur and why?
Responses
Natural selection will not occur because there is no competition
Natural selection will occur because there is competition
Natural selection will not occur because there is no mutation
Natural selection will occur because there is lowered fitness.
Answer:
Natural selection will occur because there is competition
Explanation:
Why?
The amount of individuals in the population cannot be fully supported by the ecosystem. This will lead to the dying out of members of the population. Factors like food, habitat, ETC. could be limited in this circumstance. This will cause competition between individuals of the population to stay alive.
The individual that is better at gathering food will stay alive, whereas the individual that isn't as good at gathering food will likely perish due to their inability to feed itself.
You could say there is natural selection for the individuals that gather food better than others.
Competition arises in a population that cannot support all of it's members.
onsuming foods with high glycemic index immediately after a bout of exercise will multiple choice question. ensure a slow rise in blood glucose. supply amino acids for muscle repair. rapidly restore glycogen stores. replenish sweat losses.
Consuming foods with high glycemic index immediately after a bout of exercise will c. rapidly restore glycogen stores.
Consuming foods with a high glycemic index such as boiled potatoes, white rice, white bread after exercise can quickly restore glycogen stores that are depleted during exercise. The glycemic index value depends on several factors, including dietary fiber content, amylose and amylopectin levels, fat and protein content, starch digestibility, and processing methods.
Glycogen is a storage form of glucose, where glucose is a simple sugar, a form of carbohydrates. Glycogen is an important fuel for athletes, because it is quickly broken down and used for energy.
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why is the study of bacterial symbionts of interest to people studying the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria?]
The study of bacterial symbionts is of interest to people studying the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria because these two organelles are believed to have originated from bacteria through a process of endosymbiosis.
Endosymbiosis is a process that explains how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. It is a process in which one organism (the endosymbiont) lives inside another organism (the host) and both benefit from the relationship.The endosymbiotic theory suggests that chloroplasts and mitochondria originated from free-living bacterial cells that were engulfed by a host cell. Over time, the host cell and the bacterial cell formed a symbiotic relationship in which the host provided the bacterial cell with a protected environment and nutrients, while the bacterial cell provided the host with energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
This theory is supported by several lines of evidence, including the fact that both chloroplasts and mitochondria have their own DNA, which is similar in structure to bacterial DNA, and that they both replicate by a process similar to that of bacteria. Additionally, the enzymes and metabolic pathways found in chloroplasts and mitochondria are similar to those found in bacteria.
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how many copies of each chromosome are in a somatic (non-sex) cell during interpjase priro to undergoing mitosis
Answer: 46
Explanation:
the regeneration of rubp typically limits the rate of photosynthesis under low light intensities. this is because:
The regeneration of RuBP usually limits the rate of photosynthesis under low light intensities. This is because it is a light-dependent process that occurs in the presence of sunlight. Therefore, the correct option is photosynthetic rates are dependent on the light reaction of photosynthesis.
What is Photosynthesis?Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy stored in sugar molecules such as glucose. In photosynthesis, energy from light is used to power the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to glucose and oxygen. The overall reaction can be written as follows:
6CO2 + 6H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2
The reaction occurs in two stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, light energy is absorbed by pigments in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, and this energy is used to generate ATP and NADPH, which are used to power the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, carbon dioxide is fixed into glucose by a process called the Calvin cycle.
What are RuBP and Photosynthetic Rates?RuBP is a short form of Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate. It is an organic compound present in photosynthetic organisms. Rubisco, or ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase, is a vital enzyme in photosynthesis that catalyzes the carbon fixation reaction. Photosynthetic rates are the rates at which plants perform photosynthesis. It is dependent on light intensity and several other environmental factors. It is the process by which plants produce glucose and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water. The photosynthetic rate is also limited by the regeneration of RuBP. The reason being, RuBP is required to regenerate the organic compound used in the carbon fixation reaction.
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Where does the Golgi apparatus ship proteins to?
Answer:
the Golgi apparatus sends proteins to lysosomes
the active sites on actin molecules are usually covered up by other molecules. what is the critical material required to uncover the active sites on the actin molecules that will then bind to myosin heads?
The active sites on actin molecules are usually covered up by other molecules, and the critical material required to uncover the active sites is ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).
ATP molecules bind to the active sites on the actin molecules and trigger the release of myosin binding sites. This allows myosin heads to attach to the actin molecules, which is the first step in muscle contraction.
ATP is an energy-rich molecule composed of a sugar molecule and three phosphates. When ATP binds to the active sites on the actin molecules, its energy is released, causing the myosin binding sites to be exposed. The myosin heads then attach to the actin molecules and the process of muscle contraction begins.
During muscle contraction, ATP is broken down into ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate) and phosphate, releasing energy and causing the myosin heads to detach from the actin molecules. This process is repeated as muscle contraction continues, allowing the actin and myosin molecules to bind and release, resulting in the muscle contraction.
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which of the following accurately describes a mechanism by which spontaneous heritable mutations can appear?
Spontaneous heritable mutations can arise due to a variety of mechanisms. These include the mutation of existing DNA, the insertion of DNA from another organism, or the incorporation of mobile genetic elements such as transposons.
Mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication or through damage to DNA caused by environmental agents such as radiation and chemicals. All of these processes can lead to changes in gene sequence and can result in the appearance of heritable genetic changes in the organism.
Mutation of existing DNA occurs when changes are made to the sequence of an existing gene. These mutations can result in changes in the gene's structure or function and can be caused by a variety of factors such as errors in replication or chemical or radiation damage.
Insertion of DNA from another organism can occur through horizontal gene transfer, a process by which genetic material from one organism is transferred to another organism. This process can result in the insertion of new genetic material into the organism, which can lead to the appearance of new traits and the emergence of new species.
Incorporation of mobile genetic elements such as transposons can also result in heritable genetic changes. Transposons are pieces of DNA that can move between different locations within a genome and can result in the insertion of new genetic material into a genome. This process can lead to changes in gene expression and can result in the emergence of new traits in an organism.
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why are some microbes, including streptococcus spp., unable to perform aerobic respiration, even in the presence of oxygen?
Streptococcus spp. are unable to perform aerobic respiration, even in the presence of oxygen, because they lack the metabolic pathways and enzymes necessary for aerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration is a metabolic process that involves taking in oxygen from the environment and converting it into energy.
This process is powered by a series of chemical reactions that rely on enzymes, which break down the oxygen molecules into simpler compounds and release energy.
However, Streptococcus spp. are unable to do this because they lack the enzymes needed for aerobic respiration. This means that even though oxygen is present in their environment, they are unable to utilize it in order to generate energy.
Aerobic respiration is an important process for many microorganisms, as it helps them obtain energy and thrive in their environment. In the absence of oxygen, microorganisms must rely on anaerobic respiration, which is a less efficient form of respiration that does not use oxygen.
Therefore, Streptococcus spp. are limited in their ability to produce energy and survive in their environment when oxygen is present.
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what is the angle formed by the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine
The angle formed by the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine is 90 degrees. The spinal column is composed of a series of vertebrae. Each of these vertebral bodies has a central hole or opening, known as the vertebral foramen.
In addition, on each side of the vertebra, there is a smaller opening known as the intervertebral foramina through which the spinal nerves exit. The angle formed by the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine is 90 degrees. The midsagittal plane is a vertical plane that runs through the center of the body, dividing it into equal right and left halves. The thoracic spine, also known as the upper back, is part of the spine that starts beneath the neck and extends down to the abdomen.
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3. what is the the debate about the relative contribution of genetic inheritance and experiences to our development?
The nature versus. nurture debate focuses on the relative importance of genetics and environmental influences in shaping human development.
Several philosophers, like Plato and Descartes, proposed that some traits are innate or develop organically without consideration to external influences. In the nature vs nurture argument, it is argued that an individual's intrinsic characteristics have a greater impact on their physical and behavioral qualities than do their experiences in their upbringing.
As we all know, the genes we receive from our parents affect everything from IQ, behavioral patterns, and personality traits to height, eye color, hair color, and other physical features. Our genetic make-up as well as environmental factors determine who we are today.
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a malignant disease characterized by an uncontrolled production of lymphocytes would be abbreviated as
A malignant disease characterized by an uncontrolled production of lymphocytes would be abbreviated as CLL.
What is CLL?
CLL is the abbreviation for chronic lymphocytic leukemia, which is a blood and bone marrow disease. CLL is a type of cancer that starts in the bone marrow and progresses through the bloodstream into other tissues and organs.
CLL is a slow-growing cancer that affects white blood cells called B-lymphocytes, causing them to multiply uncontrollably.
Leukemia is a cancer of the blood that originates in the bone marrow, the soft, spongy tissue in the center of the bones. The bone marrow produces red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells, which are necessary for good health.
CLL, like all blood cancers, interferes with the bone marrow's ability to make enough healthy blood cells. It can result in a decrease in the number of red blood cells, causing anemia, as well as a decrease in the number of platelets, resulting in bleeding and bruising.
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what is the chief difference between plasma and serum? what is the chief difference between plasma and serum? concentration of glucose quantity of organic wastes presence/absence of clotting proteins quantity of electrolytes amount of water
The clotting proteins are where plasma and serum differ most quite the liquid portion of the blood that is produced after the blood is let to clot is called the serum. As a result, it lacks the gelling protein fibrinogen.
Although the liquid portion of the blood that remains after the cells have been removed is the source of both serum and plasma, their similarities end there. After the blood has clumped, the liquid that remains is known as serum. Plasma is the liquid that remains after an anticoagulant is added to prevent clotting.
Except for those proteins that are utilized in clot formation, such as fibrinogen and the clotting factors, the total serum protein (TP) concentration includes all plasma proteins. The ratio of plasma protein to serum protein is about 3–5 g/L higher.
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describe the steps involved in the sorting of soluble proteins that need to be secreted out of the cell
The sorting of soluble proteins that need to be secreted out of the cell involves several steps, including synthesis in the endoplasmic reticulum, sorting in the Golgi apparatus, and release through exocytosis.
The sorting of soluble proteins that need to be secreted out of the cell involves several steps. First, the proteins must be synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum. After synthesis, the proteins are modified in the Golgi apparatus and transported to their destination.
In the Golgi apparatus, the proteins are sorted into vesicles and transported to their destination. Once at their destination, the vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane and the soluble proteins are released into the extracellular space.
The first step in the sorting of soluble proteins is their synthesis in the endoplasmic reticulum. During synthesis, the proteins undergo a process called post-translational modifications, which involve the addition of carbohydrate, phosphate, or fatty acid groups. This process helps the protein to fold correctly and become soluble.
Once modified, the proteins are transported to the Golgi apparatus, where they are sorted into vesicles and transported to their destination. The vesicles are composed of phospholipids and contain the soluble proteins. During transport, the vesicles can undergo further modifications.
Once at their destination, the vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing the soluble proteins into the extracellular space. This process is known as exocytosis and is necessary for the secretion of soluble proteins.
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how is testing for brca1 or brca2 different from testing for a gene such as the tay-sachs gene? explain your answer.
Testing for BRCA1 or BRCA2 is different from testing for a gene such as the Tay-Sachs gene because BRCA1 or BRCA2 is linked to an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer in females, while Tay-Sachs disease is a recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the HEXA gene.
Testing for BRCA1 or BRCA2: BRCA1 and BRCA2 are genes that normally produce tumor suppressor proteins.
If these genes have certain mutations that are passed down through families, the genes' abilities to suppress tumors may be reduced or eliminated, increasing the risk of breast, ovarian, and other cancers.
BRCA1 or BRCA2 testing is used to determine whether a person has a mutation in one of these genes and, as a result, an increased risk of developing breast or ovarian cancer.
The test is conducted on a blood or saliva sample that is then examined for changes in the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes that might indicate a higher cancer risk.
Testing for a gene such as the Tay-Sachs gene: Tay-Sachs disease is a rare genetic condition that causes nerve cell degeneration and early death.
This disorder is caused by a HEXA gene mutation. Tay-Sachs testing is used to determine whether a person has the Tay-Sachs gene mutation or is a carrier for the disease.
This test is commonly performed on a blood sample or a swab of the inside of the mouth lining.
When both parents are carriers, their children have a 25% chance of inheriting two copies of the Tay-Sachs gene, which causes the disease.
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given that a protein solution will have a 280/260 of about 1.75 and the same ratio for pure dna is 0.56, what % of the absorbance at 280 nm is due to dna when the 280/260 ratio is 1.155?
The following calculation can be used to calculate the percentage of the absorbance at 280 nm that is due to DNA: DNA percentage equals [(A280/A260) - (A280/A260)protein] DNA (A280/A260) and protein (A280/A260) x 100
What DNA 260 to 280 ratio is deemed acceptable?For DNA, a ratio of 1.8 is considered "pure"; for RNA, a ratio of 2.0 is considered "pure." It may indicate the presence of protein, phenol, or other pollutants that absorb heavily at or near 280 nm if the ratio is noticeably reduced in either situation.
What does DNA with a high 260 280 ratio mean?The sample is either contaminated by protein or a reagent like phenol, or there was a problem with the analysis, according to abnormal 260/280 ratios.
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which of the following is not an example of a consumer? herbivores omnivores heterotrophs carnivores photosynthesizers
Herbivores, Omnivores, Carnivores, and Heterotrophs are all examples of consumers, while Photosynthesizers are an example of a producer.
A consumer is an organism that gets its food by eating other living beings. Consumers are the second level of a food chain. In addition, they are categorized into primary consumers, secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers.
Herbivores, omnivores, carnivores, and heterotrophs are all examples of consumers.Photosynthesis is the process in which plants and some other organisms use sunlight to produce food. Since they make their food, photosynthesizers are not consumers but producers.
The two basic types of organisms in an ecosystem are producers and consumers. The producers are those organisms that produce food through the process of photosynthesis, while the consumers are those organisms that feed on other organisms.
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which of the following is an age indicator for adults? group of answer choices dental development epiphyseal fusion pubic symphysis morphology all of the above
The correct answer is "All of the Above". All four indicators (dental development, epiphyseal fusion, pubic symphysis morphology, and all of the above) are age indicators for adults.
Age indicators for adults:
Dental development: The development and eruption of teeth can be used to estimate age in adults, as tooth formation and eruption follow a specific pattern and timeline. Epiphyseal fusion: The fusion of epiphyses (end part of long bones) to the diaphysis (shaft) of the bone can also be used to estimate age in adults, as it occurs in a predictable manner. Pubic symphysis morphology: The morphology (shape) of the pubic symphysis (a joint between the two halves of the pelvis) can also be used to estimate age in adults, as it undergoes changes with increasing age.Learn more about adults: https://brainly.com/question/1488186
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