The cladogram is arranged as follows: The age of the species in each group increases from left to right.
A cladogram, often known as a hypothetical link between groups of organisms, represents a phylogeny.
The creatures being examined, lines, and nodes where those lines intersect make up a cladogram.
The connections between the lines signify evolutionary period or a chain of species that led to that population.
WHAT TYPES OF PLANT ARE NOT SEED PLANT?
Ferns, mosses, horsetails, liverworts, and club mosses are a few non-seed plant types.
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consider a cross to investigate the pea pod texture trait, involving constricted or inflated pods. mendel found that the traits behave according to dominant/recessive pattern in which inflated pods were dominant. if you pwerformed this cross and obtained 650 inflated-pod plants in the f2 generation, approximately how many constricted-pod plants would you expect to have?
If you obtained 650 inflated-pod plants in the F2 generation, you would expect to have approximately 217 constricted-pod plants.
What is a pea pod texture trait?Pea pod texture trait is the heritable characteristic of pea plants, it involves the texture of pea pods. The texture of pea pods can be constricted or inflated, which is a binary trait. The texture of pea pods is controlled by a single gene that has two variants. One of the variants encodes for the inflated pod and is dominant, whereas the other variant encodes for constricted pod and is recessive. Gregor Mendel, a botanist and geneticist, studied this trait and identified the pattern of inheritance associated with it.
How to calculate the number of constricted-pod plants?Based on Mendel's pea pod texture trait experiment, we can use the 3:1 dominant to recessive ratio for the F2 generation. Since you have 650 inflated-pod plants (dominant), to find the expected number of constricted-pod plants (recessive), you can use the following calculation:
650 inflated-pod plants / 3 (dominant ratio) = 216.67 constricted-pod plants / 1 (recessive ratio)
Approximately 217 constricted-pod plants would be expected in the F2 generation.
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Photosynthesis is the process plants used to convert sunlight into chemical energy the process of photosynthesis can be modeled to illustrate the most important S aspects of the natural phenomenon through this process plants use energy and sunlight to turn carbon dioxide gas and water into sugar plants and uses sugar to grow at the same time plants produce oxygen gas as a waste product which animals breathe read the prompt and study the diagram what cause-and-effect prediction can be used to test the assumptions in the model?
Prediction: If plants are exposed to more sunlight, then they will produce more oxygen gas as a waste product.
What is Photosynthesis?Photosynthesis is a process used by plants to convert the energy in sunlight into chemical energy stored in the form of sugars. During photosynthesis, plants take in carbon dioxide gas and water and use the energy from sunlight to turn these into sugar molecules.
At the same time, oxygen gas is produced as a waste product. This oxygen is essential for animals, as they need oxygen to survive.
Photosynthesis is a natural process that is essential for life on Earth, as it provides the oxygen needed for animals to breathe, and the sugars needed for plants to grow. By understanding the process of photosynthesis, we can better appreciate the importance of plants in maintaining a healthy environment for all living things.
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Any white blood cells which are not lymphocytes are best known as:
Nature Killer cells
O B-cells
Lymphoid cells
Myeloid cells
Please help
Answer:
Explanation:
lymphoid vells
explain the advantages and disadvantages of sexual and asexual reproduction for the species that practice them. use specific examples for each method of reproduction to support your ideas.
To answer the specific question about the advantages and disadvantages of sexual and asexual reproduction, the following information can be provided:
Sexual reproduction advantages include genetic diversity, which leads to increased survival chances during environmental changes or disease outbreaks. A specific example is humans, who reproduce sexually and have diverse genetic traits that help them adapt to various environments.
Disadvantages of sexual reproduction involve the need for a mate, which can be time-consuming and energy-intensive. For example, some birds engage in elaborate courtship rituals to attract a mate, expending significant energy in the process.
Asexual reproduction advantages include rapid reproduction rates and the ability to reproduce without a mate, which is useful in environments with few potential mates. A specific example is bacteria, which reproduce asexually by binary fission, enabling them to quickly multiply and colonize new environments.
Disadvantages of asexual reproduction involve the lack of genetic diversity, which makes a population more vulnerable to environmental changes or disease outbreaks. For example, banana plants reproduce asexually through vegetative propagation, resulting in a lack of genetic diversity that makes them susceptible to diseases like Panama disease.
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which character would be a symplesiomorphy of the clade reptilia in the tree above? determinate growth hole in the skull in front of the eye socket fused bones form carapace amniotic egg s-shaped neck
The character that would be a symplesiomorphy of the clade Reptilia in the tree above is the amniotic egg. Option C is correct.
An amniotic egg is an egg that is surrounded by a membrane, the amnion, that provides protection and allows gas exchange, and contains an embryo that is nourished by the yolk. The amniotic egg is a key adaptation of the reptiles, which allowed them to reproduce on land and freed them from the need to return to the water to lay their eggs.
The other characters listed are either synapomorphies or homoplasies that evolved in different lineages of the reptiles or are shared with other groups of organisms. For example, the determinate growth is a synapomorphy of turtles, the hole in the skull in front of the eye socket is a homoplasy that evolved independently in multiple lineages, the fused bones form carapace is a synapomorphy of turtles, and the S-shaped neck is a synapomorphy of the clade Sauropsida, which includes reptiles and birds.
Hence, C is the correct option.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Which character would be a symplesiomorphy of the clade reptilia in the tree above? A) determinate growth hole in the skull in front of the eye socket B) fused bones form carapace C) amniotic egg D) s-shaped neck."--
Match the equation to what it determines.
1. nutrient concentration – nutrient requirement
parts of feed
2. (parts of feed 1/parts of feed 2) x 100
weight of feed
3. percentage of feed/100
percentage of feed
Part B
Which principles did you use to determine the order of the layers in question 1, part A?
The correct sequence for the formation of the features from oldest to newest is layer 4, layer 3, layer 2, layer 5, and layer 1.
According to the relative ages of the layers, layer 4 is the oldest, followed by layers 3, 2, 5, and 1, while layer 3 is the second oldest. Depending on the situation and the information at hand.
What principle tells you that layers 1 through 5 have been changed?According to the superposition principle, the oldest rocks are at the bottom and the youngest are at the top of a succession of undisturbed rock strata. Sedimentary rocks are often deposited in horizontal layers, according to the idea of original horizontality.
What is the proper chronological order of the rock layers, starting with the oldest?Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous (Mississippi and Pennsylvanian), Permian, Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous, Tertiary, and Quaternary are the strata in chronological order. The type of rock in which fossils are most likely to form is a sedimentary rock.
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Are the extinct hominids more closely related to modern humans
or modern apes? Explain using specific facial features.
Yet, fossil and comparative data shows that it was considerably more like living apes than it was like modern humans.
Which prehistoric species is related to current humans the most closely?Our nearest extinct human ancestors were the Neanderthals and the Denisovans, a group of people from Asia. According to scientific evidence, our two species descended from a single common ancestor. According to recent study, all fossil and genomic evidence suggests that the split between the Neanderthal and modern human lineages occurred no more than 500,000 years ago.
Are apes and hominids closely related?All extant humans, chimps, gorillas, orangutans, or their extinct relatives are members of the Hominidae family of creatures. Scientists generally agree that among the living animals in this group, people were most closely related from chimpanzees based on morphological and Genomic comparisons.
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what is the source of energy for the synthesis of atp by the enzyme atp synthase? the active transport of sodium ions against their electrochemical gradient
The source of energy for the synthesis of ATP by the enzyme ATP synthase is: (2) The flow of protons down their electrochemical gradient.
ATP stands for Adenosine Triphosphate. It is the high energy yielding compound synthesized by the body itself. It is synthesized inside the mitochondria by the help of ATP synthase enzyme. The energy is released by the breakdown of the phospho-anhydride bonds of ATP.
In the transport of electrons through the series of electron transporters, the protons are also co-transported into the intermembrane space. This generates a gradient which when transported back into the mitochondrial matrix helps in the ATP synthesis.
Therefore the correct asnwer is option 2.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
What is the source of energy for the synthesis of ATP by the enzyme ATP synthase?
The hydrolysis of ATPThe flow of protons down their electrochemical gradientThe cleavage of a high-energy bond in another moleculeThe active transport of sodium ions against their electrochemical gradientghalambor and martin (2001) found that a north american species of thrush placed higher value on their nest full of offspring than did a similar south american species. this differential response is due to:
Ghalambor and Martin (2001) found that a north american species of thrush placed higher value on their nest full of offspring than did a similar south american species. this differential response is due to South American birds generally living longer than those in North America.
The creatures inhabiting the entire continental United States, as well as the seas and islands that surround it, the Hawaiian Archipelago, Alaska in the North, and a number of island territories in the Pacific and the Caribbean. Many endemic species unique to the United States exist there. The United States shares a significant portion of its flora and fauna with the rest of the American supercontinent and is located in the Nearctic, Neotropic, and Oceanic faunistic regions, along with much of North America.
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ringworm is caused by a(n) ringworm is caused by a(n) fungus. protozoan. nematode. trematode. cestode.
Ringworm is caused by a fungus, not a protozoan, nematode, trematode, or cestode.
The most common fungi that cause ringworm are dermatophytes, which are a type of filamentous fungi that grow on the skin, hair, and nails. Ringworm, also known as dermatophytosis, is a fungal infection of the skin, hair, or nails that can affect humans and many other animals.
It is caused by a group of fungi known as dermatophytes, which are specialized filamentous fungi that have the ability to break down keratin, a protein found in the outer layers of the skin, hair, and nails.
Dermatophytes are highly adapted to living on the skin and can grow as branching filaments called hyphae that invade the skin and cause inflammation and tissue damage. They can also produce spores called conidia that can be spread through contact with infected individuals, animals, or objects.
Hence, the correct option is D.
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which of these anatomical regions are lined by ciliated cells and which are not?
- Bronchi - Bronchiole - Trachea
- Terminal bronchiole - Alveolus - Alveolar ducts
In the anatomical regions listed, the following are lined by ciliated cells:
- Bronchi
- Trachea
- Bronchiole (only non-ciliated in the terminal bronchioles)
The following are not lined by ciliated cells:
- Bronchiole (only non-ciliated in the terminal bronchioles)
- Terminal bronchiole
- Alveolus
- Alveolar ducts
Cilia are microscopic, hair-like structures that protrude from the surface of cells. They are present on the surfaces of many cells in the human body, including the respiratory system. Cilia on respiratory tract cells beat in a coordinated, wave-like motion to move mucus and debris out of the lungs. Ciliated cells are cells that have cilia. They are found in the respiratory tract, where they play an important role in moving mucus and debris out of the lungs. Ciliated cells help to move mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory tract, while the regions without ciliated cells are mainly involved in gas exchange.
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combined federal regulations and va policy require increased security for what three types of laboratories? place a check next to each of them. select all correct answers. bsl-3 labs. bsl-2 labs. labs that utilize nucleic acid assays. labs that utilize select agents and toxins. labs that utilize substances such as radioisotopes and hazardous chemicals.
Combined federal regulations and VA policy require increased security for three types of laboratories: BSL-3 labs, labs that utilize select agents and toxins, and labs that utilize substances such as radioisotopes and hazardous chemicals Options A, D and E).
А biosecurity plаn encompаsses three mаjor components of protection: physicаl security, personnel reliаbility, аnd informаtion security. А reseаrch fаcility should consider аll three аspects of biosecurity to ensure the sаfety of their personnel аnd the security of the biologicаl аgents аnd toxins in use there. The three types of laboratories that combined federal regulations and VA policy require increased security for are:
BSL-2 labs and labs that utilize nucleic acid assays do not require increased security under these regulations and policies. BSL-2 lаborаtories аre used to study moderаte-risk infectious аgents or toxins thаt pose а risk if аccidentаlly inhаled, swаllowed, or exposed to the skin.
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buried within the cerebral hemispheres on either side of the diencephalon lie clusters of neuron cell bodies collectively called the
The clusters of neuron cell bodies buried within the cerebral hemispheres on either side of the diencephalon are collectively called the basal ganglia.
The basal ganglia are a group of nuclei that are located deep within the cerebral hemispheres of the brain. They are involved in a variety of functions, including motor control, cognition, emotion, and reward. The basal ganglia receive input from the cortex and thalamus and send output to the brainstem and cortex through a complex network of connections.
The main structures that make up the basal ganglia include the striatum, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, and substantia nigra. Dysfunction in the basal ganglia has been linked to a range of neurological and psychiatric disorders, including Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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Genes in identical organisms can be expressed differently casing the orangish to appear different due to _____ factors ?
Answer:It can be due to the Mutation.
Explanation:
It is the explanation for Genes in identical organisms can be expressed differently casing organism it to appear differently.Basicaaly it can be defined as change in one or more gene.It can be of 4 type substitution,deletion, insertion and translocation.
the benefit of the endangered species act is that it provides group of answer choices economic consideration when listing species and not simply biological importance. over 5,000 diverse species with federal protection. catch and release programs for avid sportsmen. highest priority to endangered species with medicinal values. time and space for populations of endangered species to recover and stabilize.
The benefit of the Endangered Species Act is that it provides over 5,000 diverse species with federal protection and allows time and space for populations of endangered species to recover and stabilize (option B).
The Endаngered Species Аct is one of Аmericа’s most flexible environmentаl lаws, providing mаny exceptions аnd аlternаtives thаt аllow economic growth while continuing to protect Аmericа’s wildlife heritаge. Over neаrly four decаdes, the ESА hаs brought hundreds of species bаck from the brink of extinction. Without the ESА, there would likely be no wolves, no grizzly beаrs, no Floridа pаnthers. No bаld eаgles, no Cаliforniа condors, no peregrine fаlcons, no Floridа mаnаtees. No Pаcific sаlmon, no cutthroаt trout, no shortnose sturgeon. Аnd the list goes on.
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cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. if 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (a1) and recessive (a2) alleles according to the hardy-weinberg model? cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. if 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (a1) and recessive (a2) alleles according to the hardy-weinberg model? f(a1)
A population is considered to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium when there is no influence from evolutionary forces and no evolution as a result.
The following equations can be used to express an allelic and genotypic frequency in a population that has remained steady over many generations:
Frequencies of alleles: p+q=1.
P equals the prevalence of the dominant allele.
q is equal to how often the recessive allele occurs.
Genotypic The frequency is p²+2pq+q² =1.
p² is equal to how often a homozygous dominant genotype occurs.
2pq = the frequency of the genotype with heterozygosity
The homozygous recessive genotype's frequency is q²
9/10000 = 0.0009 = sqrt(0.0009) = 0.03 = q
p + q = 1/p+ 0.03 = 1/p= 0.97
f(A1) = 0.9700/f2(A2) = 0.0300
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match each term with its best description
Impact metamorphism, also known as shock metamorphism, refers to the changes that occur in rocks and minerals as a result of high-pressure shock waves generated by the impact of a meteorite or other extraterrestrial object.
During an impact event, immense amounts of energy are released, causing the rock and mineral structure to be deformed and transformed. This can lead to the formation of distinctive features, such as shatter cones, planar deformation features, and melt rocks. These features are useful for identifying impact craters and understanding the dynamics of impact events.
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Impact metamorphism: change in a rock resulting from a metiorite. Burial metamorphism: when a rock changes due to surrounding pressure on all sides. Foliation: parallele alignement of platy grain . Compaction: grains move closer together
What are impact metamorphism, burial metamorphism, foliation, and compaction?
Impact metamorphism refers to the effects that might be caused when two bodies collide. These effects may be related to deformations and changes in state and temeperature. An example of impact metamorphism is an asteroid colliding the Earth. Burial metamorphism refers to changes that occur to different rocks when they are buried under ground at different depths where temperature and pressure affects their state.Foliation refers to the way in which metamorphic rocks arrange in layers or varying thikness. Compaction refers to the pressure that diffectent materials might suffer, causing spaces between particles to dissapear. This is how sedimentary rocks are created.
Impact metamorphism ⇒ change in a rock resulting from a metiorite
Burial metamorphism ⇒ when a rock changes due to surrounding pressure on all sides
Foliation ⇒ parallele alignement of platy grain
Compaction ⇒ grains move closer together
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__________ are personality tests wherein individuals describe what they see in a series of inkblots. a. thematic apperception tests b. self-report inventories c. projective tests d. rorschach tests
Answer:
The answer is B. Self-report inventories.
Self-report inventory belongs to the category of personality tests and contains direct questions about respondent's personal interest, values, traits and behaviors. In this test, there are no correct or incorrect answers, as the whole test is based on respondent's subjective perceptions and opinions. This is usually a brief test - it takes five to fifteen minutes to complete it.
After a volcanic eruption, the average temperature in a region dropped from 30° to 18°C. By how many degrees Celsius did the temperature drop?
which contaminant mineral blocks the metabolic sites of minerals so that they are unable to perform their roles?
The mineral that can block the metabolic sites of other minerals and prevent them from performing their roles is called cadmium.
Cadmium is a heavy metal that is commonly found in soil and can contaminate crops grown in contaminated areas. When humans consume cadmium-contaminated food or water, the cadmium can accumulate in the body and interfere with the absorption and metabolism of other minerals such as calcium, iron, zinc, and copper.
Cadmium can bind to metal-binding proteins, such as metallothioneins, and prevent the uptake and transport of other essential minerals, leading to their deficiency and impaired metabolic function. This can lead to a variety of health problems, including bone loss, anemia, and immune dysfunction. Therefore, it is important to minimize exposure to cadmium and other heavy metals to maintain optimal mineral balance and health.
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nociceptors group of answer choices are rare in joint capsules. have large receptive fields. are widely distributed in all tissues. increase in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus. carry fast pain sensations through unmyelinated fibers.
The correct answer is that nociceptors has have large receptive fields.
All pain-sensitive neurons have rather broad receptive fields, especially at the thalamic and cortical levels, indicating that the detection of pain is more significant than its exact localisation.
Transmission of harmful information through the A delta and C fibres. A delta fibres (group III fibres) have a diameter of 2 to 5 mm, are myelinated, have a high conduction velocity of 5 to 40 m/s, and primarily transmit information from nociceptors that are mechanically sensitive or mechanothermally focused. Small receptive fields characterise them.
The majority of nociceptors react to unpleasant chemical stimuli, noxious thermal stimuli (hot or extreme cold), and noxious mechanical stimuli (painful pressure, squeezing, or cutting the tissue).
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what is the function of the capillaries? to temporarily store blood that isn't being circulated to carry blood toward the heart to act as a zone of diffusion between blood and tissues to carry blood away from the heart
The function of capillaries is to act as a zone of diffusion between blood and tissues.
Capillaries are tiny, blood vessels with thin walls that link arteries and veins. Because of the thinness of its walls—just one cell—the blood and tissues around it may exchange nutrition, oxygen, and waste products.
Throughout the body, capillaries are essential for the supply of nutrients and oxygen to cells. Oxygen and nutrients permeate from the blood and into the surrounding tissues as it passes through capillaries. Furthermore, wastes like carbon dioxide and metabolic byproducts seep into the blood from the tissues and are then transported elsewhere for processing and removal.
In conclusion, capillaries' main job is to serve as a point of exchange between blood and tissues, enabling the delivery of nutrients and oxygen as well as the elimination of waste.
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what are the possibleblood types for a child with one parent thats homozygous a blood type and one parent that is heterozygous b blood type
Answer: Blood type O is not heterozygous, it can only be homozygous.
Parents with blood type O (both parents) cannot produce a child with blood type B. All children of parents who both have type O blood will 100% have also type O blood. So we have two parents with blood type BO. The possible outcomes for each child is BO (50%), BB (25%), and OO (25%). Basically each child has a 75% chance of being type B (BO or BB) and a 25% chance of being type O (OO). Each parent B0:
Possible genotypes each pregnancy, 25% chance of BB, 50% chance of B0, 25% chance of 00.
Chances of phenotypes (blood types) of offspring: 75% B, 25% 0.
Phenotypic ratio is 3 B to 1 0 (or 1 0 to 3 B). Probability of B, 3:4 or 75%. Probability of 0, 1:4 or 25%.
Explanation:
When one parent is homozygous A blood type and the other parent is heterozygous B blood type, the possible blood types for their child are A and B.
A person with homozygous A blood type has inherited two copies of the A allele, one from each parent. This means that their blood contains only A antigens and no B or Rh antigens. A person with heterozygous B blood type has inherited one copy of the B allele from one parent and one copy of the O allele from the other parent. This means that their blood contains both B antigens and O antigens, but no A or Rh antigens. Possible blood types of children When a person with homozygous A blood type and a person with heterozygous B blood type have a child, the child can inherit one of the following combinations of alleles: AA, AB, BA, or BB.
Each possible combination of alleles produces a different blood type: AA: The child will have a homozygous A blood type. AB: The child will have AB blood type, which means their blood contains both A and B antigens.BA: The child will have AB blood type, which means their blood contains both A and B antigens.BB: The child will have a homozygous B blood type. Therefore, the possible blood types for a child with one parent who is homozygous A blood type and the other parent who is heterozygous B blood type are A and B.
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Drag each label to the correct location.
Categorize the structures as homologous or analogous.
The mammalian tail and the human
coccyx (tail bone) differ in their
functions, but the close resemblance
of these structures indicates a
common evolutionary origin.
The flippers of both penguins and
dolphins help them swim, but
the internal structures of the
flippers vary.
The function of shells in both turtles
and crabs is protection, but the
anatomy of their shells is different.
The leaves of pitcher plants and the
spines of cacti are derived from a
common ancestral form, but these
structures differ in their functions.
The bills of ducks and platypuses
have similar functions but differing
structures.
Answer: Homologous:
- The mammalian tail and the human coccyx (tail bone)
- The leaves of pitcher plants and the spines of cacti
Analogous:
- The flippers of both penguins and dolphins
- The function of shells in both turtles and crabs
- The bills of ducks and platypuses
Explanation:?
Mammalian tail and human coccyx: Homologous - these structures have a common evolutionary origin and are derived from the same ancestral form, despite having different functions.
What is homologous ?In biology, the term "homologous" refers to two or more features, such as genes or anatomical structures, that are similar in structure or origin but may differ in function.
Flippers of penguins and dolphins: Analogous - these structures have similar functions, but the internal structures of the flippers vary, indicating a different evolutionary origin.
Shells of turtles and crabs: Homologous - these structures have a common evolutionary origin, and while their functions are the same, the anatomy of their shells is different.
Leaves of pitcher plants and spines of cacti: Homologous - these structures have a common ancestral form, but they differ in their functions, indicating a common evolutionary origin.
Bills of ducks and platypuses: Homologous - these structures have similar functions, but differing structures, indicating a common evolutionary origin.
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which statement among a-c is not applicable to flocculation, or floc formation, during wastewater treatment? a. filamentous bacteria enhance floc formation. b. flocculation is important for the production of a clear effluent stream of wastewater. c. flocculation increases the amount of bod entering effluent stream of wastewater. d. a-c are all applicable.
The statement that does not apply to flocculation, or floc formation, during wastewater treatment is flocculation increases the amount of BOD entering the effluent stream of wastewater (option C).
А generаl mechаnism for the destаbilizаtion of colloidаl sols by high-moleculаr-weight synthetic polymers, termed polyelectrolytes, is described by the theory of bridging. The polyelectrolyte is аdsorbed аt severаl sites, not covering the whole аreа of the colloidаl pаrticles. Аs the polyelectrolyte molecules аre relаtively long, loops or chаins protrude beyond the double lаyer. Thus, flocculаtion tаkes plаce through hydrophobic or hydrogen bonds, аnd аny compression of the double lаyer thаt cаn be induced by increаses in ionic strength should enhаnce bridging by аllowing closer pаrticle аpproаch.
Filamentous bacteria enhance floc formation and flocculation is important for producing a clear effluent stream of wastewater. Still, flocculation does not increase the amount of BOD entering the wastewater effluent stream.
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The diagram shows a plant stem.
Diagram of stem growth. Text: Apical meristem, A, B, C.
Where are the oldest cells found in this plant?
A.
In section C, where cell enlargement takes place
B.
In section C, where cell division takes place
C.
In section A, where cell division takes place
D.
In section A, where cell differentiation takes place
The response is C. where cell division occurs, in section A.
Calculation-The basic growth of the plant is carried out by the apical meristem, designated "A" in the diagram. Cell division occurs here, producing new cells that will later undergo differentiation to become specialised tissues like the xylem and phloem.
The apical meristem's cells travel out of the meristem and into section C, where they undergo cell expansion, where they continue to develop and differentiate. As a result, section A, where cell division occurs, contains the oldest cells.
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if a woman who expresses an autosomally inherited recessive trait mates with man who is does not express the recessive trait and is homozygous normal (aa), how may different genotypes of offspring can they produce with respect to this trait, and what percentage of their children will express the recessive trait?
In a mate between women expressing autosomally inherited recessive trait and homozygous normal male (AA), genotypes of offspring and percentage of their children who will express the recessive trait will be: (C) 2, 50%
Genotype is defined as the genetic constitution of an organism. The genotype can be only one single character or of complete genome of an organism. The genotype decides the expression of phenotype in individuals.
If the women only expresses an autosomally inherited recessive trait then her genotype will be Aa. Cross of Aa with AA will yield only two types of genotypes, AA and Aa. Therefore there will be 2 different genotypes of the offspring and only 50% of the children will express the trait.
Therefore the correct answer is option C.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
If a woman who expresses an autosomally inherited recessive trait mates with man who is does not express the recessive trait and is homozygous normal (AA), how may different genotypes of offspring can they produce, and what percentage of their children will express the recessive trait?
A. 1, 0%
B. 1, 100%
C. 2, 50%
D. 3, 25%
E. 3, 75%
the term dermatophyte is typically used for fungi that cause which of the following? the term dermatophyte is typically used for fungi that cause which of the following? subcutaneous mycoses cutaneous mycoses opportunistic infections systemic mycoses
The term 'dermatophyte' is generally used for fungi that causes option B: cutaneous mycoses.
Cutaneous mycoses is a fungal infection caused by a yeast fungi of Candida genus. Fungi belonging to dermatophytes causes illnesses that develop in the skin, hair, or nails, are referred to as dermatophytes. These anamorphic (asexual or imperfect fungus) mold genera are Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Trichophyton.
The host reacts to metabolic byproducts, which causes the organisms to invade the keratin tissues and cause inflammation. Generally, dermatophytes are unable to penetrate the live tissue of an immunocompetent host, their colonies are often restricted to the dead cornified layer of the epidermis.
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which of the following organs filters excess solutes from the blood? a) kidney b) gallbladder c) spleen d) stomach a) kidney
The organ that filters excess solutes from the blood is the kidney.
The kidney is the organ responsible for filtering excess solutes from the blood. The kidneys are paired organs located in the abdomen and are responsible for filtering blood and removing excess wastes and solutes from the body. The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron, which is responsible for filtering blood and producing urine. As blood passes through the nephrons, wastes, excess solutes, and excess water are filtered out of the blood and excreted in the form of urine. The other organs listed, including the gallbladder, spleen, and stomach, do not play a significant role in filtering excess solutes from the blood.
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