Moving to another question will save this response. Question 10 Seeking Perfectionisim: A normal habit in a personality Mental Health problems. OCD All are correct Moving to another question will save this response Moving to another question will save this response. Question 11 In learning, Positive and Negative Reinforcement are part of O Operant Conditioniong Classical Conditioning Punishment O All A Moving to another question will save this response. Moving to another question will save this response Question 12 1 points Fras do not like to study, he got low marks in his finale in Math Theatre, his mumtook Imoble phone from the proves the opposin his the Observational Learning Positive Punishment Non of the above Negative Reinforcement Moving to another question will be this one hp है 96 8 5 6 A Maving to another question will save this response. Question 13 Positive Punishement behaviour, and negative punishment behaviour O Weakens, Weakens Weakens, Strengthens Strengthens, Strengthens Strengthen, Weakens Moving to another question will save this response. hp Moving to another question will save this response. Question 14 The feeling that you have to entertain other people, Non Historinio Personality Disorder Avoldant Personality Disorder Borderline Pomonality Disorder Moving to another question will save this response,

Answers

Answer 1

Question 10: Seeking Perfectionism is: OCD. This is the correct option as OCD stands for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and people who suffer from it tend to strive for perfectionism. They have a persistent and uncontrollable urge to do things repeatedly, thus making it a normal habit in their personality.

Question 11: In learning, positive and negative reinforcement are part of Operant Conditioning. Operant Conditioning refers to the process of learning through which the strength of the behavior is modified by reinforcement or punishment. Positive reinforcement involves the presentation of a reward after a behavior while negative reinforcement involves the removal of an adverse stimulus after the behavior.

Question 12: Fras did not like to study, he got low marks in his finale in Math Theatre, his mom took his mobile phone from him. It is an example of Negative Reinforcement. Negative reinforcement is a technique of strengthening a behavior by removing an aversive stimulus after the behavior. In the given scenario, the aversive stimulus is the mobile phone and its removal strengthens the behavior of studying for good grades.

Question 13: Positive Punishment behavior weakens, and Negative Punishment behavior weakens. Positive punishment behavior weakens the behavior as it involves the addition of an aversive stimulus, whereas negative punishment behavior weakens the behavior by removing a positive stimulus.

Question 14: The feeling that you have to entertain other people is: Non-Historionic Personality Disorder. Non-Histrionic Personality Disorder is characterized by feeling uncomfortable when one is not the center of attention and a need for constant reassurance from others. The individuals feel that they have to entertain others to gain attention and validation.

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Related Questions

The doctor has ordered aminophylline 250 mg to be added to 200 mL D5W. You are to infuse 100 mL in 45 min and to infuse the remainder of the solution in 3.5 hours. Stock supply is aminophylline 500 mg/10 mL. The drop factor is 60gtt/ml. Calculate the gtt/min to infuse the remainder of the solution. O 29 gtt/min 19 gtt/min 71 gtt/min 57 gtt/min 2,400 gtt/min 5 p

Answers

We are given aminophylline 250 mg to be added to 200 mL D5W. We are to infuse 100 mL in 45 min and to infuse the remainder of the solution in 3.5 hours. The stock supply is aminophylline 500 mg/10 mL.

The drop factor is 60gtt/ml. We need to calculate the get/min to infuse the remainder of the solution. We can use the formulates/min = (Volume to be infused in mL × drop factor) / Time in minWe have the volume to be infused, drop factor and the time in hours.

We need to convert time in hours to time in minutes.100 mL is to be infused in 45 min. Therefore, volume to be infused in next 3.5 hours (210 min) = (200-100) = 100 mL. Remaining dose to be infused = 100 mL in 3.5 hours = 210 involute to be infused in mL = 100 mL + 100 mL = 200 mortal Time to be infused = 3.5 hours = 210 minutes.

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Based on the chart, what are the three most effective methods to protect against pregnancy?

IUD, implant, injection
patch, vaginal ring, implant
patch, vaginal ring, pill
vaginal ring, patch, injection

Answers

Answer:

IUD, implant, injection
Explanation:
According to the CDC, vaginal rings (like NuvaRing) lead to unintended pregnancy in 9% of women who report typical use within the first year of use and 0.3% of women who report perfect use.

Implants (like Implanon) lead to unintended pregnancy in 0.05% of women reporting both typical and perfect uses.

Contraceptive patches (like Evra patch) lead to unintended pregnancy in 9% of women reporting typical use and 0.3% of women with perfect use.

Intrauterine devices (IUDs, like ParaGard and Mirena) have an average of 0.5% rate of unintended pregnancy with typical use and 0.4% rate with perfect use.

The contraceptive injections (like Depo-Provera) have a 6% unintended pregnancy rate with typical use and a 0.2% for perfect use.

Finally, the contraceptive pill yields rates of 9% with typical use and 0.3% with perfect use.

So with perfect use, the most effective methods are implants first, then injections, and then IUDs.

An
air bag in a car collision protects you because it reduces the ...

Answers

The airbag in a car collision protects occupants by reducing the force of impact. It rapidly inflates upon collision, creating a cushioning barrier between occupants and hard surfaces. This helps distribute forces, absorb energy, and mitigate the risk of severe injuries to the head and chest.

During a car collision, the airbag plays a critical role in protecting the occupants by reducing the force of impact. When the collision sensors detect a significant impact, the airbag rapidly inflates, creating a cushioning barrier between the occupants and the hard surfaces of the vehicle.

This inflation process occurs within milliseconds and helps to distribute the forces involved in the crash over a larger surface area. By doing so, the airbag absorbs some of the energy from the collision and slows down the deceleration of the occupants' bodies. This reduces the risk of severe injuries, particularly to the head and chest, by mitigating the direct contact with the vehicle's interior.

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Give 5 storage conditions of human normal immunoglobulin
injection and why?

Answers

Human normal immunoglobulin (IVIG) injections should be stored in a refrigerator between 2-8°C (36-46°F) to maintain stability. They should be protected from light, not frozen, and handled gently to avoid denaturation or aggregation of the immunoglobulin molecules, ensuring their therapeutic effectiveness when administered to patients.

The five storage conditions of human normal immunoglobulin injection and why are as follows:

Refrigeration: Human normal immunoglobulin injection is stored in a refrigerator between 2-8 °C because it is stable at low temperatures.Avoid freezing: Human normal immunoglobulin injection must be kept away from freezing temperatures to prevent damage to the contents.Avoid exposure to sunlight: Human normal immunoglobulin injection should be stored away from direct sunlight or artificial light to prevent it from deteriorating.Store in its original container: The injection should be stored in its original container to prevent any contamination from other substances.Avoid shaking: Human normal immunoglobulin injection should not be shaken because it can cause the contents to become agitated and lose potency.

A human normal immunoglobulin injection is a liquid that contains antibodies. It is used to help the body fight infections by providing it with antibodies that are found naturally in the body.

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1. What tools/ supplies/instruments that goes on a Mayo
Set-Up Schematic for Lap low anterior resection?
2. What supplies/instruments goes on a Mayo Set-Up

Answers

Tools/supplies/instruments that go on a Mayo Set-Up Schematic for Lap low anterior resection include a Mayo stand, surgical drapes, a light source, electrocautery unit, laparoscopic instruments (trocar, graspers, scissors, dissectors), laparoscopic camera system, suction/irrigation system, staplers, bowel clamps, and sutures.

A Mayo Set-Up is a standardized arrangement of instruments and supplies used during surgical procedures. For laparoscopic low anterior resection, which is a minimally invasive procedure for removing a portion of the rectum, the following tools and supplies are typically included:

- Mayo stand: A movable table or stand that holds the instruments and supplies.

- Surgical drapes: Sterile coverings placed over the patient to maintain a sterile field.

- Light source: Provides adequate illumination for the surgical field.

- Electrocautery unit: Used for cutting and coagulating tissues during the procedure.

- Laparoscopic instruments: Trocars (to create ports for instrument insertion), graspers (for tissue manipulation), scissors (for cutting), dissectors (for tissue dissection), and other specialized laparoscopic instruments.

- Laparoscopic camera system: Provides visualization of the surgical site.

- Suction/irrigation system: Used for suctioning fluids and irrigating the surgical field.

- Staplers: Used for creating anastomosis (joining) of the remaining rectum with the colon.

- Bowel clamps: Used for temporary occlusion of the bowel during the procedure.

- Sutures: Used for closing incisions or securing tissues.

These tools and supplies are arranged on a Mayo stand according to the surgeon's preference and the specific requirements of the laparoscopic low anterior resection procedure.

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The Healthcare Assistant is serving drinks. "Hi their Mr. Smith. How about a drink for you today?" "Sounds great thanks!" The Healthcare Assistant pours Mr. Smith a water, puts it on the side table and starts to walk away. "Excuse mel/ was hoping for a juice/" "Sorry Mr. Smith, it's too late now! I'll give you a juice tomorrow." 1. Name the primary person-centred care principle overlooked in this scenario Providing personalised care I 2. What should the Healthcare Assistant do in the same scenario next time and why? (One hundred words maximum.)

Answers

The primary person-centered care principle overlooked in this scenario was Providing personalised care. The Healthcare Assistant should be attentive, listen to the patient's concerns, and act on them to ensure the best possible care is given.

1. Name the primary person-centred care principle overlooked in this scenarioThe Healthcare Assistant did not follow the principle of listening to the patient's needs and concerns, which is a fundamental aspect of person-centered care. They were focused on providing water instead of asking the patient about their preference, which was juice.

This resulted in the patient's dissatisfaction, as they had to wait for another day to get the juice they wanted.What should the Healthcare Assistant do in the same scenario next time and why? The Healthcare Assistant should acknowledge Mr. Smith's request for juice and ensure that the patient is receiving personalized care. The assistant should be attentive to the patient's needs and listen to their concerns to provide them with the best possible care. The Healthcare Assistant should be patient, polite, and attentive to their patients to ensure they get the care they need and deserve.

The Healthcare Assistant should respond in a friendly manner and apologize for not hearing Mr. Smith's request for juice. They should take the extra step of making sure that the patient is happy and satisfied with the care they have received. They should ensure that they are providing the patient with the care they need to improve their well-being. This will help the patient feel comfortable and confident in their care and, ultimately, lead to a better health outcome.

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On Saturday, Ryann is scheduled to run in her state cross-country meet. When she is choosing foods to eat for
breakfast, select those that will provide the energy she needs for the cross-country event. Select all that apply.
A. Water
C Cheese eggs
B. Apple slices
D. Bagel with peanut butter

Answers

Ryann should choose water, apple slices, and a bagel with peanut butter for breakfast to provide the energy she needs for the cross-country event.

To perform at her best during the cross-country event, Ryann needs to fuel her body with foods that provide sustained energy. Water is essential to stay hydrated and maintain optimal performance. Apple slices are a good choice as they contain natural sugars and carbohydrates, which can provide a quick energy boost.

Additionally, the fiber in apples aids in digestion and helps to maintain steady energy levels. Lastly, a bagel with peanut butter is a great option as it offers a combination of carbohydrates, healthy fats, and protein. The carbohydrates from the bagel will provide a slow release of energy, while the peanut butter adds protein and healthy fats to sustain Ryann's energy levels throughout the race.

It's important for athletes like Ryann to choose a balanced breakfast that includes a mix of carbohydrates, protein, and healthy fats. This combination ensures a steady release of energy and helps to prevent fatigue during prolonged physical activity.

Choosing whole foods like apple slices and opting for natural sources of carbohydrates, such as bagels, rather than processed options, provides a more nutrient-dense breakfast. Additionally, staying properly hydrated by drinking water before and during the race is crucial for optimal performance. By selecting these foods, Ryann can fuel her body effectively and give herself the best chance for success in her state cross-country meet.

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The doctor orders gentamicin 2.5 mg/kg/day IV in 2 divided doses. The stock supply is gentamicin 50 mg in 10 mL. The patient weighs 110 kg. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL. How many milligrams will the patient receive in 24 hours? O 137.5 mg/day O 27.5 mg/day O 275 mg/day 68.8 mg/day 13.5 mg/day 3

Answers

The patient will receive 275 mg/day of gentamicin in 1100 drops in 24 hours.

Gentamicin 2.5 mg/kg/day IV in 2 divided doses is the ordered dosage. The patient’s weight is 110 kg. The first step to figuring out the number of milligrams the patient will receive per day is to determine the patient’s dosage, which is 2.5 mg/kg/day. 2.5 mg/kg/day is the same as 2500 mcg/kg/day.

To calculate the patient’s daily dosage, we must first calculate the patient’s weight in kg.

Patient weight = 110 kgDosage = 2.5 mg/kg/day

Patient dose = 2.5 mg x 110 kg = 275 mg/day

The gentamicin supply is 50 mg in 10 mL.

We will use dimensional analysis to calculate how much solution the patient needs.

20 gtt/mL is the drop factor. So,1 mL = 20 gtt

We need to convert mg to mL since we have the concentration of the drug in milligrams. To do so, we must first find out how many mg are in 1 mL of gentamicin.

We can find it out by dividing 50 mg by 10 mL:

50 mg/10 mL = 5 mg/mL

We can now divide the patient's daily dose of 275 mg by 5 mg/mL to get the necessary volume of gentamicin:

Volume of gentamicin needed = 275 mg/5 mg/mL = 55 mL

We can now convert mL to gtt:

55 mL x 20 gtt/mL = 1100 gtt

Therefore, the patient will receive 275 mg/day of gentamicin in 1100 drops in 24 hours.

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Make a concept map regarding Suchman's 5 stages
of Illness about your illness behavior when you got fever
recently.
Please undertsand and read the instructions clearly.

Answers

Concept maps are an effective way to visually represent complex information in a hierarchical structure. Suchman's 5 stages of illness can be easily represented using a concept map. In the context of your recent fever, the following concept map can be used to explain the five stages of illness:


The first stage of illness is Symptom Experience, in which an individual becomes aware of the physical and psychological symptoms associated with the illness. In the case of fever, symptoms such as high body temperature, body aches, chills, and fatigue would be experienced.
The second stage is Assumption of the Sick Role, where the individual acknowledges their illness and begins to seek help and support from others. This may involve calling in sick to work or school and seeking medical attention.
The third stage is Medical Care Contact, where the individual seeks professional medical care, such as visiting a doctor or going to the hospital. In the case of a fever, this may involve taking over-the-counter medications, such as ibuprofen or acetaminophen, or seeking prescription medication from a doctor.
The fourth stage is Dependent Patient Role, in which the individual relies on others for help and support, such as family members or healthcare professionals. This may involve staying in bed or receiving medical treatment.
The fifth and final stage is Recovery or Rehabilitation, in which the individual recovers from the illness and returns to normal daily activities. In the case of a fever, this may involve rest, hydration, and gradually returning to normal activities once the fever has subsided.
Overall, Suchman's 5 stages of illness provide a useful framework for understanding the illness behavior associated with fever, and can be effectively represented using a concept map.

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Which of the following is Not true of strength training A. The are multiple styles and/or programs to develop strength B. It involves strengthening the cardiac muscle C. It will aid in physiological development D. It does not burn up to three times more calories than cardio exercise

Answers

Strength training is an effective way to develop muscular strength, endurance, and improve overall health. It is recommended that adults engage in some form of strength training at least two days per week.

Here is a brief explanation of the given options to determine which of the following is not true of strength training: A. The are multiple styles and/or programs to develop strength-This statement is true. There are different styles and programs that can be used for strength training, including weight lifting, resistance band exercises, bodyweight exercises, and more.

Each program can target specific muscle groups and is tailored to an individual's needs. B. It involves strengthening the cardiac muscle-This statement is false. Strength training is designed to develop and strengthen the skeletal muscles, not the cardiac muscle.

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In general, which is the responsibilities of public health
nurses. Challenges for Public health Nursing in the 21st
Century

Answers

Public health nurses play a significant role in society. They take care of the overall health of the population, which is important for the growth and development of any country. Public health nurses are responsible for promoting good.

They are also responsible for providing healthcare services to those who cannot access healthcare facilities or are unable to afford them. They also play a crucial role in developing policies, programs, and strategies to improve the overall health of the population.

In the 21st century, public health nursing is facing numerous challenges, including a lack of resources, technological advancements, climate change, globalization, and the emergence of new diseases. Inadequate resources and staffing continue to hamper the delivery of essential public health services.

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I am doing a paper on a geriatric patient. I'm in a nursing program. The assessment tools used for the assignment were the mini-cog, mini nutritional assessment, and the Hendrich Fall Risk Model. I am stumped on this last question. Please help! My answer needs to be in reference to nursing and discuss geriatrics.
Question:
Describe the characteristics of servant leadership in a global society, your professional practice, and community life based on the assessment. Include suggestions for how nurses may engage and lead in the community, affect the well-being of older adults in the community, and help older adults adapt to situations and issues based on the assessment topics. Include health promotion, disease prevention, health equity, diversity, equity, and inclusion factors that may affect an older adult’s ability to access resources related to the assessment topics.

Answers

Servant leadership in the context of geriatric care involves prioritizing the needs of older adults, advocating for their well-being, and actively engaging in the community. Through servant leadership, nurses can contribute to the overall health and quality of life of older adults in the community.

Servant leadership is a leadership approach that emphasizes serving and supporting others, focusing on their needs and well-being. In the context of a global society, professional practice, and community life in geriatric care, servant leadership can have a profound impact on the well-being of older adults and their ability to access resources related to the assessment topics.

In nursing, servant leadership involves putting the needs and interests of older adults first, advocating for their rights, and providing person-centered care. It requires nurses to establish strong relationships with older adults and their families, actively listen to their concerns, and involve them in the decision-making process.

To engage and lead in the community, nurses can participate in community outreach programs, support health promotion and disease prevention initiatives, and collaborate with other healthcare professionals and community organizations.

In promoting the well-being of older adults in the community, nurses can address health equity, diversity, and inclusion factors that may affect their ability to access resources. This involves recognizing and addressing barriers such as language barriers, cultural beliefs, socioeconomic disparities, and limited access to healthcare facilities.

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The physician orders 400 mg of Keflex to be added to 100 mL of D5W IVPB to be administered over 45 minutes q 8 hours. The stock supply is a vial containing 1 gram of Keflex. Directions say to reconstitute with 4.5 mL of normal saline to yield a concentration of 200 mg/1 mL. The drop factor is 15 gtt/ml. How many mL will be added to the D5W for the correct dose? 400 mL 1.8 mL 100 mL 4.5 mL 2 mL 5

Answers

2 mL of the reconstituted solution should be added to the D5W for the correct dose.

To determine how many milliliters (mL) will be added to the D5W for the correct dose, we need to calculate the amount of Keflex needed for each dose and then convert it to mL based on the concentration provided.

The physician orders 400 mg of Keflex, and the concentration of the reconstituted solution is 200 mg/1 mL. Therefore, we can set up a proportion to find the required volume (x) of the reconstituted solution:

400 mg / 200 mg = x mL / 1 mL

Cross-multiplying, we get:

400 mg * 1 mL = 200 mg * x mL

400 mL = 200x

x = 400 mL / 200

x = 2 mL

Hence, 2 mL of the reconstituted solution should be added to the D5W for the correct dose.

To achieve the correct dose of 400 mg of Keflex, we use the information provided to calculate the required volume of the reconstituted solution. The stock supply is a vial containing 1 gram (1000 mg) of Keflex, and it is reconstituted with 4.5 mL of normal saline, resulting in a concentration of 200 mg/1 mL. This means that each milliliter of the reconstituted solution contains 200 mg of Keflex.

Since the physician orders 400 mg of Keflex, we set up a proportion to find the volume of the reconstituted solution needed. By cross-multiplying and solving for x, we determine that 2 mL of the reconstituted solution should be added to the D5W to achieve the correct dose.

It's essential to follow precise calculations and measurements in medication administration to ensure patient safety and proper dosing. Healthcare professionals, such as nurses, pharmacists, and pharmacy technicians, play a critical role in accurately preparing and administering medications according to physician orders and established guidelines. These calculations help ensure that patients receive the correct dose of medication and minimize the risk of medication errors.

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The US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) published their Strategic Plan which spans from 2014 to 2018. They document four goals as: ____

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The US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) published their Strategic Plan, which spans from 2014 to 2018. They documented four goals.

Let's discuss them in detail.

The four goals of HHS Strategic Plan are:

Goal 1: Strengthen Health Care. HHS Strategic Plan's first goal was to strengthen the health care system. The department aimed to strengthen health care quality, access, and value in the country. They aimed to achieve this goal through implementing and advancing the Affordable Care Act (ACA) and other initiatives.

Goal 2: Advance Scientific Knowledge and Innovation. The second goal of the HHS Strategic Plan was to advance scientific knowledge and innovation. HHS aimed to promote scientific discovery and improve public health outcomes through research and development. They planned to invest in cutting-edge research and technological advancements to improve health outcomes.

Goal 3: Advance the Health, Safety, and Well-being of the American People. The third goal of the HHS Strategic Plan was to advance the health, safety, and well-being of the American people. The department aimed to achieve this goal by enhancing public health and emergency preparedness efforts. HHS also aimed to reduce the number of illnesses, injuries, and deaths associated with hazardous environmental factors.

Goal 4: Ensure Efficient, Effective, and Accountable Delivery of HHS Programs. The fourth and final goal of the HHS Strategic Plan was to ensure efficient, effective, and accountable delivery of HHS programs. The department aimed to make health care services more affordable, accessible, and accountable through the promotion of transparency, accountability, and value-based care.

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Nia just found out she is pregnant, and is very concerned about the health of her baby. She is wondering how she can keep her baby safe during prenatal development. Based on what we learned in the class, what advice can you give Nia? Include a discussion of risk factors and protective factors .

Answers

The most important advice for Nia to keep her baby safe during prenatal development is to prioritize her own health and well-being.

During pregnancy, the health and safety of the mother directly impact the development of the baby. By taking care of herself, Nia can significantly reduce the risks and enhance the protective factors for her baby's well-being.

Firstly, Nia should ensure she maintains a balanced and nutritious diet. Consuming a variety of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats provides essential nutrients for the baby's growth and development. Adequate intake of folic acid, iron, calcium, and other vitamins and minerals is crucial for the healthy formation of the baby's organs and tissues.

Secondly, Nia should avoid harmful substances, such as tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drugs. Smoking and alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to serious complications, including premature birth, low birth weight, and developmental issues. Illicit drugs pose similar risks and can have long-lasting effects on the baby's health.

Additionally, Nia should attend regular prenatal check-ups with her healthcare provider. These check-ups help monitor the baby's progress, detect any potential problems early on, and ensure that Nia receives appropriate medical care throughout her pregnancy. It's important for Nia to openly discuss any concerns or questions she may have with her healthcare provider, as they can provide personalized guidance and support.

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Describe how information technologies currently and
futuristically change the health responsibilities of providers and
patients
Critique the government’s role in regulating
individual/population h

Answers

Information technology has become a critical part of the health care system, both today and in the future. It has improved patient care and quality, reduced expenses, and allowed for the sharing of knowledge and expertise among healthcare providers.

Information technologies have transformed healthcare delivery and changed the roles of both providers and patients.Today's healthcare providers must use modern information technologies to stay competitive and meet patients' expectations. Medical technology is evolving at a rapid pace, and healthcare professionals must remain informed of technological advancements. Healthcare providers must now keep track of patient data and care through electronic health records (EHRs), which help streamline communication and improve patient safety. Clinicians can now analyze large data sets and use machine learning algorithms to diagnose and treat patients.

Patients are also taking on new responsibilities and roles. Information technologies provide patients with new tools to track their health and engage with their care. Mobile health (mHealth) apps and wearables allow patients to monitor their health data, receive reminders, and track their physical activity. These applications can help patients become more involved in their own care, promoting better health outcomes.The government has a significant role in regulating healthcare in the United States. Federal agencies, such as the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), work to create regulations and policies that ensure high-quality care while keeping costs low. In recent years, the government has also made efforts to regulate the use of information technologies in healthcare.

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For your Course Project, you will be exploring concepts associated with managed care. The purpose of your Course Project is to demonstrate your understanding, comprehension, and mastery of these concepts. Throughout this semester you will be acquiring knowledge on managed care topics, trends, as well as terminology. You will apply this new knowledge to your Course Project.
Choose five concepts covered in the course from different weeks. Create an in depth power point presentation for the five concepts you choose. Your presentation should be instructive to the viewer to clarify, explain and describe the concepts chosen. Be creative and include some visuals to make your presentation appealing and readable.
A title slide with your name, course, and labeled Final Course Project
All credits in APA Style. You must credit the sources of your information within the slide and at the end in a separate slide for citations in APA format.
A minimum of five concepts examined
There should be at least seven slides: a title, five concepts, and a citation slide.
These below are the concept of which needed for this project.
1)Utilization and quality management in managed care
2)Claims process
3)State and federal oversight of managed care
4)Function of board of directors in managed care organizations
5)Medicare, how it is paid

Answers

Utilization and quality management in managed care refer to a system that ensures that patients receive the right care at the right time. Managed care organizations (MCOs) often have a system in place to track the health care they provide to their members.

1) Utilization and quality management in managed care: Utilization and quality management in managed care refer to a system that ensures that patients receive the right care at the right time. Managed care organizations (MCOs) often have a system in place to track the health care they provide to their members. It helps to prevent unnecessary care, coordinate care, and ensure that patients receive the best care possible.

2) Claims process: Claims process refers to the way in which an insurance company processes claims for reimbursement of medical expenses. It is a critical function of the insurance industry, and it requires a high level of accuracy and efficiency. Claims processing can be a complex process and involves many different parties, including health care providers, insurance companies, and patients.3. State and federal oversight of managed care

3) State and federal oversight of managed care refer to the regulation of MCOs by state and federal agencies. It is an essential function of the government to ensure that MCOs are providing quality care to their members.

4) Function of board of directors in managed care organizations: The function of board of directors in managed care organizations refers to the role of the board in setting the strategic direction for the organization. The board is responsible for ensuring that the organization is meeting the needs of its members and providing quality care. The board also plays a critical role in ensuring that the organization is financially stable.

5) Medicare, how it is paid: Medicare, how it is paid refers to the way in which Medicare is funded. Medicare is a federally funded program that provides health care coverage to seniors and people with disabilities. The program is funded by payroll taxes, general tax revenue, and premiums paid by beneficiaries.

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Question #1: Transmission of COVID 19 for seniors.
Question #2: Who are the susceptible host? What can you do to
prevent complications from COVID 19 infection to this group of
people?

Answers

Transmission of COVID-19 for seniorsCOVID-19 can spread to seniors in a variety of ways. It is typically transmitted through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks.

The droplets then land in the mouths or noses of those nearby, or on surfaces that others touch. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), seniors are at greater risk of developing severe illness from COVID-19. This is due to the fact that seniors have weaker immune systems than younger people, which makes it more difficult for them to fight off infections. Furthermore, many seniors have pre-existing medical conditions that increase their risk of developing severe COVID-19, such as heart disease, lung disease, and diabetes.Answer to Question #2: Who are the susceptible hosts? What can you do to prevent complications from COVID-19 infection to this group of people?

According to the CDC, older adults, especially those aged 65 and above, and people of any age who have underlying medical conditions, such as heart disease, lung disease, diabetes, kidney disease, or weakened immune systems, are considered to be at greater risk of developing serious complications from COVID-19. To help protect these groups of people from the virus, the following steps can be taken: Practice social distancing by avoiding large crowds and gatherings;Wear a face mask when in public or when you are around others outside your household;Wash your hands regularly with soap and water for at least 20 seconds; Clean and disinfect frequently touched surfaces often;Avoid close contact with others who are sick; Stay home if you are feeling unwell or experiencing symptoms of COVID-19.

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In contrast to the metabolic response to stress, starvation is characterized by
A. increased metabolic rate
B. increased body temperature
C. increased O2 consumption
D. decreased protein catabolism

Answers

In contrast to the metabolic response to stress, starvation is characterized by increased protein catabolism. The correct option is not given . This means that the body breaks down proteins from muscle tissues and organs to produce energy.

This happens because during starvation, there is a lack of glucose (blood sugar) and glycogen (stored glucose) in the body.

The body needs glucose to fuel the cells, especially the brain, which can’t function without it. When glucose is lacking, the body turns to other sources of energy, including fat and protein.

Starvation is also characterized by a decreased metabolic rate, decreased body temperature, and decreased oxygen consumption. This is because the body conserves energy during periods of food deprivation to preserve vital functions. When the body is deprived of food, it shifts into “starvation mode,” where it slows down metabolism to save energy.

During this time, the body’s priority is to keep the brain functioning, so it turns to protein catabolism to produce the glucose the brain needs to function. This is why people who are starving tend to have a thin and frail appearance, as their body is breaking down muscle and other tissues for energy.

In conclusion, starvation is characterized by increased protein catabolism, decreased metabolic rate, decreased body temperature, and decreased oxygen consumption.

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What meal, when consumed, would contain the highest amount of bioavailable iron?
A• Bagel with cream cheese, apple slices, and coffee
B• Chicken fajita taco with bell peppers, onions and beans
C• Yogurt, banana, and tea
D• Spinach salad topped with chicken, cheese, and whole wheat croutons

Answers

The correct answer is option  Spinach salad topped with chicken, cheese, and whole wheat croutons. Iron bioavailability is the degree to which iron in food is absorbed and used by the body.

Spinach salad topped with chicken, cheese, and whole wheat croutons is a meal that would contain the highest amount of bioavailable iron, more than 100.The iron in this meal is present in the form of heme iron. It is the most bioavailable form of iron, as it is easily absorbed by the body.

Heme iron is only present in animal foods such as meat, poultry, and seafood. Spinach salad is made with chicken, cheese, and whole wheat croutons, which are all rich sources of heme iron. Spinach is also a good source of non-heme iron, which is the form of iron found in plant-based foods, such as legumes, nuts, and whole grains.

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This technique in Psychoanalysis allows for a client to openly express their inner thoughts, feelings, conflicts, and concerns.
Group of answer choices
cognitive restructuring
free association
MBSR
dream analysis
This technique in therapy trains individuals to relax, become aware of their thoughts and feelings in the present moment, and let them go without judging them.
Group of answer choices
humanistic/existential therapy
mindfulness based stress reduction (MBSR)
psychoanalytic therapy
cognitive-behavioral therapy
Jane is afraid of crowds. If her therapist uses the systematic desensitization technique, Jane will be asked to
Group of answer choices
expose her fear in group therapy
identify self-defeating core beliefs
learn how to relax then slowly work on being around people
stand alone in a room

Answers

The technique in psychoanalysis that allows for a client to openly express their inner thoughts, feelings, conflicts, and concerns is called free association.

Free association is a fundamental technique in psychoanalysis that encourages clients to freely express their thoughts and emotions without censorship or judgment. During therapy sessions, the therapist creates a safe and non-judgmental space where the client is encouraged to speak their mind without filtering their thoughts. By doing so, the client can tap into their unconscious mind and explore their deeper emotions, desires, and conflicts that may be influencing their current behavior and well-being.

Through free association, the client is given the opportunity to explore the hidden meanings and connections behind their thoughts and feelings. By expressing themselves openly, they may reveal unconscious patterns, childhood experiences, or repressed memories that are contributing to their psychological distress or conflicts. This technique allows the therapist to gain insight into the client's psyche and provide a deeper understanding of their inner world.

Free association is based on the premise that our unconscious mind holds important information and insights that can help uncover the root causes of psychological issues. By allowing the client to express themselves freely, without censoring or filtering their thoughts, free association aims to bring these unconscious processes to the surface, facilitating self-discovery and promoting healing.

In summary, free association is a psychoanalytic technique that enables clients to openly express their inner thoughts, feelings, conflicts, and concerns. By doing so, clients can delve into their unconscious mind, gain insight into the underlying causes of their psychological issues, and work towards personal growth and healing.

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What strategy are we using when we are intentionally forgetting memories associated with unwanted thoughts? Reaction formation Displacement Repression Projection

Answers

The strategy being used when intentionally forgetting memories associated with unwanted thoughts is called "repression."

Repression is a defense mechanism in which unconscious thoughts, feelings, or impulses are pushed away from conscious awareness in order to avoid dealing with them.

In the case of unwanted memories, repression involves actively suppressing or forgetting the memories in order to avoid dealing with the associated emotions or thoughts. This is often done as a way to protect the individual from feelings of guilt, shame, or anxiety that may be associated with the memories.

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what is Ethical and Unethical. Give me an example of
Ethical and unethical in a Healthcare world

Answers

Ethical and Unethical are two sides of the same coin that define the principles of good and bad behavior in society. Ethics refers to the principles that govern behavior, a set of moral principles that govern a person's conduct in various situations. Unethical behavior, on the other hand, refers to actions that violate these moral principles, and it is conduct that is not accepted by society or the law. In healthcare, ethical and unethical practices may arise from the relationships between the healthcare provider and the patients.

Ethical practices: Ensuring confidentiality - the healthcare provider must keep patient information confidential and secure. Protecting patient rights - the healthcare provider must ensure that patients receive the best care possible and that their rights are respected and upheld. Compliance with medical and legal requirements - the healthcare provider must follow established medical and legal guidelines to provide safe and effective care for patients.

Unethical practices: Violating patient privacy and confidentiality - disclosing patient information to unauthorized individuals without the patient's consent. Disrespecting patient rights - patients may be denied the right to choose a treatment or participate in medical research without consent. Unprofessional conduct - the healthcare provider may fail to maintain the required standards of professionalism by engaging in actions that may harm patients.

In summary, ethical and unethical practices in healthcare are critical aspects that can have significant consequences on patients' lives. Therefore, upholding ethical practices and avoiding unethical behavior in healthcare services is essential.

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The nurse is caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension. which treatments would the nurse question?

Answers

The nurse would question the use of non-selective beta-blockers, high-flow oxygen, and medications that constrict blood vessels in a patient with pulmonary hypertension. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these potential contraindications in order to provide safe and effective care for the patient.

The nurse would question certain treatments when caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs. The main goal of treatment is to manage symptoms and slow down the progression of the disease.

One treatment that the nurse would question is the use of non-selective beta-blockers. These medications are commonly used to treat high blood pressure, but in patients with pulmonary hypertension, they can actually worsen symptoms and lead to a decrease in cardiac output. Therefore, the nurse would question the use of non-selective beta-blockers in this case.

Another treatment that the nurse would question is the administration of high-flow oxygen. While oxygen therapy is beneficial in many respiratory conditions, in patients with pulmonary hypertension, it can lead to an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance and worsen symptoms. Therefore, the nurse would question the use of high-flow oxygen in this situation.

Additionally, the nurse would question the use of certain medications that are known to constrict the blood vessels, such as decongestants and certain types of antidepressants. These medications can further increase pulmonary vascular resistance and worsen the condition of the patient.

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Describe the concept of communication, including the definition, scope and categories, attributes and criteria, theoretical links, and context to nursing and health care.

Answers

Communication is the process of exchanging information, ideas, and emotions between individuals through various means, including verbal, nonverbal, and written methods.

It encompasses a wide range of interactions and is fundamental to human interaction and understanding. In the context of nursing and healthcare, effective communication plays a vital role in building therapeutic relationships, promoting patient-centered care, and ensuring safe and high-quality outcomes. Communication in healthcare can be categorized into verbal (spoken or written), nonverbal (body language, gestures), and technological (electronic records, telemedicine) forms. Attributes of effective communication include clarity, active listening, empathy, cultural sensitivity, and respect.

Theoretical frameworks such as therapeutic communication models and communication theories provide valuable insights into understanding and improving communication processes in healthcare settings.

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which Team group's legislation passed successfully?

Answers

The Team group's legislation that passed successfully is the TEAM Act. It is an acronym that stands for "Taxpayer First Act". The bill, which is primarily aimed at improving the management and quality of the IRS (Internal Revenue Service), was introduced by Senators John Thune and Ron Wyden.

It was passed by the Senate on June 13, 2019, and was then signed into law by President Donald Trump on July 1, 2019, becoming the first major tax bill of his presidency. The TEAM Act includes several provisions that aim to improve the quality of service provided by the IRS, including requirements for increased training of employees.

Additionally, the bill includes provisions to protect taxpayers from identity theft and fraud. Overall, the TEAM Act represents a significant step forward in improving the effectiveness of the IRS and protecting taxpayers' rights. It is considered a major accomplishment for the Team group and was widely praised by tax experts and politicians alike.

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A 12-hour urine specimen with a volume of 360 ml is collected for a creatinine clearance. what is the volume (v) used to calculate the clearance?

Answers

Creatinine clearance is a medical test that measures how efficiently the kidneys are removing creatinine from the blood. A 12-hour urine specimen with a volume of 360 ml is collected for a creatinine clearance.

The volume (v) used to calculate the clearance is 720 ml. What is creatinine clearance?

Creatinine is a waste product generated by muscles from creatine. Creatinine is produced continuously and is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Creatinine clearance is a test that measures the amount of creatinine that is excreted in urine over a given period of time. It is one of the ways to estimate how well the kidneys are functioning.

What is the procedure for creatinine clearance?

A 24-hour urine sample is usually used to determine creatinine clearance. However, in some cases, a 12-hour urine specimen is used to calculate creatinine clearance. In this case, a 12-hour urine specimen with a volume of 360 ml is collected for a creatinine clearance. The volume (v) used to calculate the clearance is 720 ml.

The formula to calculate creatinine clearance is:

Creatinine clearance = (urine creatinine concentration x urine volume per minute) / (serum creatinine concentration x time in minutes)

What factors can affect creatinine clearance results?

Several factors can affect creatinine clearance results. These include age, sex, weight, muscle mass, medications, and medical conditions such as kidney disease, heart failure, and liver disease. It is important to consider these factors when interpreting creatinine clearance results.

Therefore, it is important to discuss your results with your healthcare provider.

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Adam had a secure upbringing living with his single mother. Adam would probably characterizes his love relationship at the age of 28 in terms of __________.
shared interests, emotional distance, and status
dependency, security, and sacrifice
desperation, anxiety, and fear
trust, happiness, and friendship

Answers

Adam would probably characterize his love relationship at the age of 28 in terms of trust, happiness, and friendship.

Adam had a secure upbringing living with his single mother. As per Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, Adam's upbringing will have an impact on his adult personality development and his approach toward relationships. The stage relevant to Adam's age group is intimacy vs. isolation. It's the fifth stage of psychosocial development. At this stage, individuals strive to develop intimate relationships with others. In the absence of success in forming a meaningful connection, people will be left with isolation.

Adam's secure upbringing may have contributed positively to his personality development. As a result, he may feel comfortable trusting people, forming close and healthy friendships and relationships, and feeling happy in them. Therefore, Adam would probably characterize his love relationship at the age of 28 in terms of trust, happiness, and friendship.

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Remote diets (when this method might be preferred, which assessment type to use - current diet vs. recall of past diet). Monitoring vs. surveillance (understand the difference between the two, strengths and limitations of each).

Answers

Remote diets, also known as tele-dietetics or virtual dietary assessment, refer to the use of technology to conduct diet assessments and provide dietary counseling remotely. This method might be preferred in situations where in-person consultations are not feasible or convenient, such as during a pandemic, for individuals in remote areas, or for those with limited mobility.

Assessment Type: Current Diet vs. Recall of Past Diet

When conducting remote diets, two common assessment types are the evaluation of the current diet and the recall of past diet.

Current Diet Assessment:

In a current diet assessment, individuals record and report their food intake in real-time using various methods such as food diaries, mobile apps, or online platforms. This approach provides accurate and detailed information about the individual's current dietary habits, portion sizes, and nutrient intake. It allows for real-time monitoring and adjustments to the diet plan. However, it relies on the individual's commitment to accurately track and report their food intake, which can be challenging for some individuals.

Recall of Past Diet Assessment:

In a recall of past diet assessment, individuals are asked to remember and report their food intake over a specific period, such as the past 24 hours or the previous week. This method relies on individuals' memory and ability to estimate portion sizes and ingredient details. It is less time-consuming than real-time tracking but is subject to recall bias and may not provide an accurate representation of the individual's usual dietary patterns.

Monitoring vs. Surveillance:

Monitoring and surveillance are two approaches to remote dietary assessment and counseling.

Monitoring:

Monitoring involves regular and ongoing tracking of individuals' dietary intake and habits. It focuses on providing feedback, support, and guidance to individuals based on their reported food intake or other relevant data.

Monitoring allows for personalized recommendations and interventions based on the individual's progress and specific goals. It promotes self-awareness and accountability, enabling individuals to make informed decisions about their dietary choices. However, it heavily relies on individuals' compliance and active participation.

Surveillance:

Surveillance involves the continuous collection and analysis of dietary data from a larger population or community. It aims to identify patterns, trends, and risk factors related to dietary habits and nutrition-related health outcomes.

Surveillance data are used to develop public health strategies, policies, and interventions at a population level. While surveillance provides valuable information about the overall dietary landscape, it may not provide individualized guidance or support.

Strengths and Limitations:

Remote diets offer convenience, accessibility, and flexibility for individuals who cannot attend in-person consultations.Current diet assessments provide real-time and accurate information about an individual's dietary habits, facilitating tailored interventions.Recall of past diet assessments are less time-consuming but subject to recall bias and may not reflect long-term dietary patterns.Monitoring allows for personalized feedback, support, and self-management but relies on individuals' compliance and active participation.Surveillance provides population-level data for public health planning but may not offer individualized guidance or support.

In summary, remote diets using either current diet assessment or recall of past diet can be effective alternatives when in-person consultations are not possible. Monitoring focuses on individualized feedback and support, while surveillance collects population-level data for public health planning. Each approach has its strengths and limitations, and the choice depends on the specific goals and context of the dietary assessment or intervention.

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"Which of the following two nutrient needs increase with age?
Group of answer choices
A. Water & lead
B. Protein & lipids
C. Calcium & vitamin D
D. Vitamin k & biotin"

Answers

The two nutrient needs that increase with age are Calcium and Vitamin D. Option c.

Calcium and vitamin D are the two nutrient needs that increase with age. Calcium is important for maintaining healthy bones and teeth, while vitamin D is essential for helping the body absorb calcium and maintain strong bones as well as supporting immune function.

Other nutrients that may become more important with age include vitamin B12, which is necessary for healthy nerve function and the production of red blood cells, and fiber, which can help prevent constipation and lower the risk of heart disease and other chronic conditions. It's important for older adults to maintain a balanced and varied diet to meet their changing nutritional needs. Option c.

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