show your work please

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

240 x 1/3 = 240/3 = 80

so the answer is: the product is less than 99

Answer:

43

Step-by-step explanation:

Cos A= 8/11

Cos A= 43.34

A=43.34

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  20 square centimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of the dilated figure is the original area multiplied by the square of the dilation factor. The center of dilation is irrelevant.

  dilated area = (1/2)² × original area

  dilated area = 1/4 × 80 cm²

  dilated area = 20 cm²

Answer:

You are having a stroke.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Go to the hospital.

The equation of the line that is parallel to y = 3x - 2 and intersects the point (3, 5) will be y = 3x - 4.

Let the equation of the line be ax + by + c = 0. Then the equation of the parallel line that is parallel to the line ax + by + c = 0 is given as ax + by + d = 0.

The linear equation is given below.

y = 3x - 2

The equation of the line that is parallel to the line y = 3x - 2 will be given as,

y = 3x + c

The equation passes through (3, 5), then we have

5 = 3(3) + c

5 = 9 + c

c = - 4

Then the equation of the line will be y = 3x - 4.

More about the equation of a parallel line link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/402319

#SPJ2

Answer:

1) 16

2) -196020

Step-by-step explanation:

simple answer using DMAS rule

D = Division

M = Multiplication

A = Addition

S = Subtraction

Answer:

A. P = 72 feet, A = 300 square feet

Step-by-step explanation:

✔️Perimeter = sum of all sides of the polygon = 15 + 16 + 17 + 8 + 16 = 72 ft

✔️Area of the polygon = area of a trapezoid = ½(a + b)h

Where,

a = 16 ft

b = 16 + 8 = 24 ft

h = 15 ft

Substitute

Area = ½(16 + 24)15

Area = ½(40)15

Area = 300 ft²

Answer:

x=.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2 are left over

since 7 goes into 30 4 times which makes 28 books. Meaning 2 are going to be left over

Answer: A 4.08x10^7

Step-by-step explanation:

Expanded form: 40800000

Answer:

A: 10 x 1/2 = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

dfghj

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of the coin landing on heads is 50% and the relative frequency of the coin landing on heads is 57%

The sample space of a coin is:

S = {Head, Tail}

The sample size is:

n(S) = 2

The probability of the coin landing on heads is calculated as:

P(Head) = n(Head)/n(S)

So, we have:

P(Head) = 1/2

Express as percentage

P(Head) = 50%

Hence, the probability of the coin landing on heads is 50%

From the question, we have:

Toss = 100

Head = 57

The relative frequency of the coin landing on heads is calculated as:

Frequency = 57/100

Express as percentage

Frequency = 57%

Hence, the relative frequency of the coin landing on heads is 57%

Read more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/251701

Answer:

1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

33.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

(279,000 - 186,000) / 279,000 = 0.33333333333

0.33333333333*100= 33.3333333333

Formula used:

[tex]V_{2} -V_{1}[/tex] / [tex]V_{2}[/tex] × 100

V2= 279,000

V1= 186,000

The approximate percentage of the decrease in value​ of the house is 33.33%.

Purchase price of the house = $279,000

Appraisal cost of the house = $186,000

The percentage is the value per hundred.

The percent of the decrease in value​ = (279000-186000)/279000 *100

The percent of the decrease in value​ =(93000/279000) *100

The percent of the decrease in value​ =33.33%

Hence, the approximate percentage of the decrease in value​ of the house is 33.33%.

To get more about percentages visit:

https://brainly.com/question/24304697

Answer:

4.02°

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle of descent can be obtained using trigonometry ;

Since we have a right angled triangle ;

Let's use the relation:

Sin θ = opposite / hypotenus

Hypotenus = 2.7 miles

1 mile = 5280 feets

2.7 miles = (2.7 * 5280) = 14256 feets

Sin θ = 1000 / 14256

Sin θ = 0.0701459

θ = sin^-1(0.0701459)

θ = 4.0223674

Answer:

Vivian will have to get a loan, and pay back the money she spent with her debit card. If she cannot pay back this loan in time, the interest will grow higher and higher. Using a debit card is NOT good because if you don't have the money for something and you buy it anyway, you'll have to pay back double the money if you miss the deadline for the loan.

Answer: the last one, 31.6

Answer:

the answer is about 31.6

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula for the height of a cone is 3(V/πr^2), so if you plug in the number, you'll get about 31.6.

Answer:

0.989 = 98.9% probability that Mr. Bateman’s class has more students who pass on the first try

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution, the binomial approximation to the normal and subtraction of normal distributions.

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Subtraction of normal distributions:

When two normal variables are subtracted, the mean is the subtraction of the means while the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of the variances.

Among Mr. Adams’s students, 68% pass the driving test on the first try. Sample of 40.

This means that [tex]p = 0.68, n = 40[/tex].

[tex]\mu_A = np = 40*0.64 = 27.2[/tex]

[tex]s_A = \sqrt{40*0.68*0.32} = 2.95[/tex]

74% of Mr. Bateman’s students pass the driving test on the first try. Sample of 50:

[tex]p = 0.74, n = 50[/tex]

[tex]\mu_B = np = 50*0.74 = 37[/tex]

[tex]s_B = \sqrt{50*0.74*0.26} = 3.1016[/tex]

What is the probability that Mr. Bateman’s class has more students who pass on the first try?

This is the probability that B - A is greater than 0.

Distribution B - A:

Mean:

[tex]\mu = \mu_B - \mu_A = 37 - 27.2 = 9.8[/tex]

Standard deviation:

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{s_A^2 + s_B^2} = \sqrt{2.95^2 + 3.1016^2} = 4.28[/tex]

Probability of being larger than 0:

1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 0. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{0 - 9.8}{4.28}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.29[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.29[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.011

1 - 0.011 = 0.989

0.989 = 98.9% probability that Mr. Bateman’s class has more students who pass on the first try

Answer:

0.734, c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

16 is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20pi or 62.83

Step-by-step explanation:

when r=4

pi r^2

16pi

when r=6

pi r^2

36pi

36pi-16pi=20pi or 62.83

Answer:

A-0.125

B-15%

C- I think .15 would

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry if i am incorrect

Answer:

A=.125

B=.14

Step-by-step explanation:

C=.15 would give him more candy.

Answer:

$377.86

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Video game system costs $350, sales tax rate is 796.

To find: Final cost

Solve: Calculating Total Cost. Multiply the cost of an item or service by the sales tax to find out the total cost.

                                           3.5  × 7.96 = 27.86

Add the total sales tax to the Item or service cost to get your total cost.

                                           27.86 + 350 = 377.86

The final cost is $377.86

Answer:

Not a function

Not a function

Function

Step-by-step explanation:

The 1st one isn't as clear in the picture, but it looks like the ends of each line overlap the each other.

Answer:

2x is the greatest common factor.

Step-by-step explanation:

Looking for what they have in common and what is the highest number they can both go into.

Answer:

3840in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula:

V = whl

Insert the values:

V = 20 * 16 * 12

Multiply the values:

V = 3840in²

Answer:

4(3x+8)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8000 and 12,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the amount of money deposited in the 3% account be known as "x"

The amount of money deposited in the 6% account would be "20,000 - x" (aka the remaining amount of money not put into the first account)

3% Interest -> 0.03 *

6% Interest  -> 0.06 *

0.03 * x + 0.06 * (20,000 - x) = 960

0.03x + 1200 - 0.06x = 960

-0.03x = -240

x = 8000

20,000 - x

20,000 - 8000 = 12000