To administer 1.25 mg of lorazepam when tablets are available in 500 mcg strength, the number of tablets needed will be calculated. The number of tablets to be administered is 2.
To determine the number of tablets needed, we need to convert the given dosage from milligrams (mg) to micrograms (mcg) to match the tablet strength.
1 mg is equivalent to 1000 mcg.
Given that the lorazepam tablets are available in 500 mcg strength, we can calculate the number of tablets required as follows:
1.25 mg = 1.25 × 1000 mcg = 1250 mcg
Now, we divide 1250 mcg by the strength of each tablet (500 mcg) to find the number of tablets needed:
1250 mcg ÷ 500 mcg = 2.5 tablets
Since we cannot administer a fraction of a tablet, we round the answer to the nearest tenth. In this case, we will administer 2 tablets.
Therefore, the number of tablets to be administered is 2.
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28. What happens to intrapleural pressure when a puncture wound breaches the pleural cavity? What does this cause the lung to do? (1pt) 29. Describe when, where, and why a "chloride shift" occurs during respiration (1pt) 30. Describe general characteristics of an obstructive and a restrictive breathing disorder. Give one example of an obstructive disorder and one example of a restrictive disorder. (1pt)
When a puncture wound breaches the pleural cavity, intrapleural pressure decreases and the lung collapses. A chloride shift occurs during respiration to maintain pH balance.
When a puncture wound breaches the pleural cavity, it leads to a decrease in intrapleural pressure. The pleural cavity, a space between the lung and the chest wall, normally has a slight negative pressure that helps maintain lung inflation. However, when the pleural cavity is breached, air enters and equalizes the pressure, causing the lung to collapse.
This collapse of the lung, known as a pneumothorax, disrupts the normal exchange of gases and can result in difficulty breathing and potentially life-threatening consequences. It requires prompt medical attention to reinflate the lung and seal the puncture.
During respiration, a "chloride shift" occurs in red blood cells. This shift involves the exchange of bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) for chloride ions (Cl-) to maintain pH balance. In the tissues, carbon dioxide (CO₂) produced as a waste product of cellular respiration is converted into bicarbonate ions, which are then transported back to the lungs.
In the lungs, the bicarbonate ions are converted back into carbon dioxide for exhalation. The chloride shift helps maintain the electrochemical balance and pH of the red blood cells during this process.
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M.P., a 19-year-old, has a spinal cord injury (SCI) after a gunshot wound 2 weeks ago. The gunshot injury occurred during a hunting accident when his best friend’s gun accidentally discharged. His injury is at the T5 level. The goal is to prepare him for transfer to a rehabilitation unit in the next few days.
Subjective Data
Has just completed his first year of college as an engineering student
States he is depressed and "cannot get used to the idea of not walking again"
Objective Data
Physical Examination
Supine blood pressure 120/68, sitting blood pressure 114/62, pulse 68, temperature 99.8°F, respirations 16
Slight edema bilateral lower extremities – ace wraps wrapped around lower extremities
Abdominal binder in place
Urinary catheter intact and draining dark yellow urine
Last bowel movement 2 days ago; it was hard, small, and brown
Full head, neck, shoulder and upper extremity movement with normal muscle strength and sensation
Complete paralysis of lower body and legs with no sensation present
Full passive range of motion without crepitation in the bilateral lower extremities
Diagnostic Studies
Spinal series radiographs: complete transection at T5
MRI: Confirmed transection and revealed no clots or masses present
Laboratory results:
White blood cells: 9500/µL
Hemoglobin: 16 g/dL
Hematocrit: 45%
Questions
Based on the assessment data above, what are the nursing priorities for M.P.at this time? What actions do you need to take based on these priorities?
What is the rationale for the lower extremity elastic compression stockings and abdominal binder?
Case Study Progress
M.P. is being transferred to the rehabilitation unit.
List three other potential adverse conditions (not discussed in question 1) to continue to monitor M.P. for throughout his stay.
List three physical rehabilitation goals that M.P. can achieve, based on his level of injury.
Based on the assessment data, the nursing priorities for M.P. at this time are:
Psychosocial support and addressing depressionPrevention of complications related to immobilityBowel management2. Nursing Priorities and Actions:
Helping people who are having a hard time with their feelings and sadness.Check how the Member of Parliament is feeling and give them comfort and help with their emotions.Preventing complications related to immobility:
Check your skin regularly to avoid getting pressure sores.Make a plan to turn and move your body regularly to avoid getting sores from not moving enough.3. Ensuring bowel and bladder management
Make sure the tube in M. P's body for peeing is working okay and to stop them getting sick in their pee area.Give medicine to make it easier to poop as instructed so you don't get constipated.Rationale for Lower Extremity Elastic Compression Stockings and Abdominal Binder:
Wearing special socks on your legs can stop swelling by helping blood flow better and making it less likely for clots to form.The belly binder helps strengthen the belly muscles and reduces the chance of problems like a hernia or breathing issues caused by weak belly muscles.Three Other Potential Adverse Conditions to Monitor:
Autonomic dysreflexia is a serious condition that can happen if someone has an injury above a certain point on their spine. Keep an eye out for signs of another infection in the tubes that take pee out of your body. Check for signs of DVT, like pain, swelling, warmth, and redness in the calf. When you can't move around much, your chances of getting blood clots go up.Three Physical Rehabilitation Goals for M.P.:
Helping people become stronger in their upper body and more able to do daily tasks on their own by using tools that can assist them.This means you will learn how to move around and direct yourself in a wheelchair so that you can be more independent when you go out in public.Learning how to handle and bounce back from tough situations that come with spinal cord injuries.What is the spinal cord injury?Psychosocial support and addressing cavity: M.P. is articulating impressions of concavity and difficulty recognizing welcome disadvantage.
The nurse should supply instructions providing psychological support, alive listening, and cautioning to help M.P. deal with welcome position.
Since M.P. has a complete deadness of the lower body and stages, the nurse concede possibility devote effort to something forestalling complications in the way that pressure ulcers, urinary lot contaminations, deep vein loss of consciousness from blockage in vein or artery, and respiring difficulties.
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2. Which of the following describes the two forces opposing the creation of filtrate?
A. Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus (HPG) and capsular hydrostatic pressure (HPC)
B. Capsular Hydrostatic pressure (HPC) and colloid osmotic pressure of blood (COPB)
C. Colloid osmotic pressure of blood (COPB) and hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus (HPG)
3. Which of the following indicates the order of occurrence that will allow milk to eject from a mammary gland?
A. Prolactin release, nipple stimulation, oxytocin release, alveolar ducts eject milk
B. Oxytocin release, nipple stimulation, prolactin release, alveolar ducts eject milk
C. Nipple stimulation, oxytocin release, prolactin release, alveolar ducts eject milk
5. Which of the following conditions will have the effect of sending the person into metabolic acidosis? Use the carbonic anhydrase equation below to help determine your answer.
H2O + CO2 <->H2CO3-<-> H++HCO3-
A. A sudden increase in metabolism
B. A sudden decrease in metabolism
C. A sudden overdose of tums (bicarbonate)
25. Which of the following fetal structures will transport wastes away from the developing fetus?
A. umbilical vein
B. Umbilical arteries
C. Foramen ovale
The answer to question 2 is A. Hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus (HPG) and capsular hydrostatic pressure (HPC).
The answer to question 3 is C. Nipple stimulation, oxytocin release, prolactin release, alveolar ducts eject milk.
The answer to question 5 is A. A sudden increase in metabolism.
The answer to question 25 is B. Umbilical arteries.
In question 2, the two forces opposing the creation of filtrate in the kidney are the hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus (HPG) and the capsular hydrostatic pressure (HPC). The HPG is the pressure exerted by the fluid in the glomerulus, while the HPC is the pressure exerted by the fluid in the Bowman's capsule. These opposing forces help regulate the filtration process in the kidneys, ensuring that only certain substances are filtered out as filtrate.
In question 3, the correct order of occurrence for milk ejection from a mammary gland is nipple stimulation, oxytocin release, prolactin release, and then alveolar ducts ejecting milk. Nipple stimulation triggers the release of oxytocin, a hormone that causes the contraction of the smooth muscles surrounding the mammary glands. This contraction leads to the ejection of milk from the alveolar ducts. Prolactin release, on the other hand, is responsible for milk production.
Question 5 asks about the condition that would lead to metabolic acidosis using the carbonic anhydrase equation. Based on the equation, a sudden increase in metabolism would result in an increase in the production of carbon dioxide (CO2). This increase in CO2 would shift the equation to the right, leading to an increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). This imbalance in the acid-base levels would cause metabolic acidosis.
In question 25, the fetal structure that transports wastes away from the developing fetus is the umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus to the placenta, where they are then transferred to the maternal circulation for elimination. The umbilical vein, on the other hand, carries oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus. The foramen ovale is a fetal cardiac structure that allows blood to bypass the lungs and flow directly from the right atrium to the left atrium.
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Which of the following options best describes the 2 cell - 2 hormone model of steroid hormone synthesis? a. Both thecal cells and granulosa cells of follicles secrete predominantly oestradiol prior to ovulation, and progesterone following formation of the corpus luteum. b. Thecal cells are responsible for synthesizing the female hormones that are released into the blood circulation, whereas granulosa cells synthesize the hormones that influence the maturation of the oocyte. c. FSH stimulates thecal cells to synthesize progesterone, which is then transported to granulosa cells that convert it to oestradiol. In antral follicles, LH stimulates thecal cells to synthesize androgens from cholesterol. d. FSH then stimulates the conversion of these androgens to oestradiol in the granulosa cells. e. In large preovulatory follicles, LH stimulates granulosa cells to synthesize progesterone directly from cholesterol.
Option that describes the 2 cell - 2 hormone model of steroid hormone synthesis is : c) FSH stimulates thecal cells to synthesize progesterone, which is then transported to granulosa cells that convert it to oestradiol. In antral follicles, LH stimulates thecal cells to synthesize androgens from cholesterol. Hence, the correct answer is option c).
This statement describes the 2 cell - 2 hormone model of steroid hormone synthesis. The steroid hormone synthesis in females occurs in the ovarian follicles. There are two types of cells in the ovarian follicles: Theca cells and Granulosa cells. The hormone synthesis occurs in the following way:
In antral follicles, LH stimulates thecal cells to synthesize androgens from cholesterol. FSH then stimulates the conversion of these androgens to oestradiol in the granulosa cells. In larger, preovulatory follicles, LH stimulates the synthesis of progesterone directly from cholesterol in granulosa cells. This is the 2 cell - 2 hormone model of steroid hormone synthesis. Hence, option (c) is correct.
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Higher voltages are required for external defibrillation than for internal defibrilation. This statement is alows the user to vary the oxygen concentration of pratory gas between 21% and 100% by ______
Higher voltages are required for external defibrillation than for internal defibrillation. This statement is true and the user to vary the oxygen concentration of preparatory gas between 21% and 100% by adjusting the fractional concentration of inspired oxygen (FIO2).
Explanation:
External defibrillation: External defibrillation is a technique that requires higher voltages than internal defibrillation. The external defibrillator paddles are placed on the patient's chest. The device sends an electrical shock to the heart through the paddles to re-establish a healthy heart rhythm.
Internal defibrillation: Internal defibrillation is a technique that is used less often than external defibrillation. Internal defibrillation is a procedure in which paddles are implanted within the patient's chest. These paddles release electricity, which is sent to the heart, and its rhythm is restored.
Adjusting fractional concentration of inspired oxygen (FIO2): The concentration of oxygen in the air we breathe is 21 percent. The fractional concentration of inspired oxygen (FIO2) can be adjusted between 21 percent and 100 percent by the user. The user can change the FIO2 concentration of the preparatory gas by adjusting it to the desired value (between 21 percent and 100 percent). Thus, the user can vary the oxygen concentration of the preparatory gas by adjusting the fractional concentration of inspired oxygen (FIO2).
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Which of the following is not true about marasmus? A. The victims are deficient in protein but have borderline or adequate kilocalorie intake B. The victims can have a "skin-and-bones" appearance C. The victims can suffer extreme lean tissue wasting D. The victims are deficient in protein and kilocalories
The victims of marasmus are deficient in protein and calories is a true statement. The correct answer is option D.
Marasmus is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by extreme wasting of adipose tissue and skeletal muscle mass. It is not a true statement that the victims are deficient in protein but have borderline or adequate kilocalorie intake. In fact, victims of marasmus are deficient in both protein and kilocalories, which leads to weight loss and muscle wasting.
Marasmus is typically seen in malnourished children under the age of 1 year. Victims can have a "skin-and-bones" appearance and suffer from extreme lean tissue wasting. This is due to a lack of adequate nutrition, including protein and calories, which are essential for growth and development. In conclusion, option D is a true statement as marasmus is caused due to the deficiency of both protein and kilocalories.
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A nurse is assessing a client for peripheral vascular disease. What assessment findings would indicate the possible presence of peripheral vascular disease? Select
All That Apply
A. The nurse finds the right foot to be cool and the rest of the leg to be warm.
B. The patient has an increased bleeding time.
C A weak pulse in the right lower extremity.
d The patient has a blister on the left foot.
The assessment findings that would indicate the possible presence of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) include cool right foot, weak pulse in the right lower extremity, and blister on the left foot.
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is a condition in which there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels that results in reduced blood flow to the limbs. The disease often occurs in the legs and feet, but it can also affect the arms and hands. PVD can be asymptomatic in the early stages, but as the condition worsens, it can cause symptoms such as leg pain, cramping, numbness, tingling, and coldness in the affected limb. In some cases, there may be no pulse or a weak pulse in the affected limb. In this case, the nurse finds the right foot to be cool and the rest of the leg to be warm, which could be an indication of poor blood flow to the foot.
Additionally, a weak pulse in the right lower extremity is another sign of decreased blood flow to the limb. The presence of a blister on the left foot may also indicate peripheral vascular disease, as reduced blood flow can impair the body's ability to heal. Therefore, the assessment findings that would indicate the possible presence of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) include cool right foot, weak pulse in the right lower extremity, and blister on the left foot.
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Discuss the three tasks; conform and identify potential users
and adopters, specify performance objectives and determinants of
adoption, implementation and sustainability.
Conforming and identifying potential users and adopters is the first task when implementing a new system ensuring it conforms to the organization's goals. The system should meet the goals, whether it is a new or an existing design.
The three tasks that are usually performed by organizations while implementing a new system are identification, meeting, and implementing the goals in an organization.
Once it conforms the potential users and adopters of the system should be identified. The group of users likely to benefit from the system is referred to as adopters.
Specify performance objectives and determinants of adoption: This task involves setting performance objectives for the new system. The new system is designed to meet the organization's performance requirements. The determinants of adoption are also specified. These features and functions will make the system attractive to potential users.
Implementation and sustainability: the process of developing, testing, and deploying the system is called implementation. It is done in such a way that it does not disrupt the operation of the organization. Once the system is deployed, it must be sustained to ensure that it continues to meet the organization's goals. The system must be maintained and updated regularly to keep up with changes in technology, business requirements, and user needs.
Early adopters, people who value newness and innovation:
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"C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMR’s D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMR’s
Electronic Health Records (EHRs) or Electronic Medical Records (EMRs) have become a necessity for most medical practices. However, like every other technology, EHRs and EMRs have their issues that make them challenging to work with.
These issues may range from technical to practical, such as user interface, data entry, and security. Some common problems associated with EHRs/EMRs include data entry errors, software crashes, and data breaches. While data entry errors can lead to poor clinical decision making, software crashes can result in system downtime, loss of data, and decreased efficiency. Additionally, data breaches can put patient information at risk, which can lead to legal issues. Therefore, it is important to have proper security measures in place to prevent data breaches. Besides, other factors, such as patient demographics, level of computer literacy, and workflow patterns, can also affect the use of EHRs/EMRs. A patient's age, for instance, can impact the accuracy of data entry, while their level of computer literacy may impact their ability to use EHRs/EMRs. Workflow patterns, on the other hand, can influence how EHRs/EMRs are used in clinical settings. In conclusion, EHRs/EMRs can be useful tools for medical practices, but they come with their own set of challenges. To maximize their benefits, it is important to address the issues they present and implement best practices to minimize their impact.
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Discuss Cesar Chavez and his impact on California also what were
Cesar Chavez's views on immigration? 1 page, please
Cesar Chavez was a prominent American labor leader and civil rights activist who had a significant impact on California, particularly in relation to farm workers' rights.
What is the view?
He was a proponent of better working conditions, just pay, and improved treatment for agricultural employees and co-founded the United Farm Workers (UFW) organization.
Chavez's initiatives were essential in bringing attention to the struggles faced by farm workers and in uniting them to fight for their rights. Chavez and the UFW intended to better the lives of farm workers and draw attention to their issues through nonviolent rallies, strikes, and boycotts.
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Cesar Chavez was an American labor leader and activist who co-founded the United Farm Workers (UFW) in 1962. He was born on March 31, 1927, in Yuma, Arizona, and passed away on April 23, 1993, in San Luis, Arizona.
Cesar Chavez's impact on California, Cesar Chavez's most significant impact was his role as a labor leader in California's agricultural sector. He worked to promote and protect the rights of farm workers, such as wages, benefits, and better working conditions. His work led to the creation of the National Farm Workers Association, which later became the United Farm Workers. Cesar Chavez's leadership also led to the establishment of the California Agricultural Labor Relations Act in 1975. The act provided farm workers with collective bargaining rights, which meant that they could negotiate better pay, working conditions, and benefits.
Cesar Chavez's views on immigration, Cesar Chavez was the son of migrant farmworkers and grew up as a migrant farmworker himself. He recognized that many farmworkers were undocumented immigrants who worked under terrible conditions and often suffered abuse from their employers. As a result, Cesar Chavez was an advocate for undocumented immigrants. He believed that they deserved the same rights and protections as other workers. He worked to make sure that farmworkers were treated humanely and paid fairly. He also believed that undocumented immigrants should be given the chance to become legal residents and that the government should provide a path to citizenship for those who wanted it. In conclusion, Cesar Chavez was a labor leader and activist who worked to promote and protect the rights of farmworkers in California. He played a significant role in creating the United Farm Workers, and his leadership led to the establishment of the California Agricultural Labor Relations Act. He was also an advocate for undocumented immigrants, believing that they deserved the same rights and protections as other workers.
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A pharmacy technician asks the pharmacist if it is suitable to substitute Fiorinal No. 3 for Sedapap, which was prescribed, because of the nearly identical chemical properties of the two drugs. He explains to the pharmacist that Sedapap is out of stock, and that the prescribing physician did indicate that a suitable substitution medication was allowed. After taking the Fiorinal No. 3, which contains codeine (to which the patient is allergic), the patient is hospitalized after going into anaphylactic shock. It is later found that Fiorinal No. 3 (a Schedule III drug because of its codeine content) is vastly different from the drug simply referred to as Fiorinal, a non-narcotic agonist analgesic.
Is this error the fault of the pharmacy technician only?
Is it the fault of the physician?
What are the potential outcomes of this error?
The error isn't the fault of the pharmacy technician only. The physician may also be at fault. The potential outcomes of this error could be severe as the patient is allergic. content loaded. A pharmacy technician asks the pharmacist if it is suitable to substitute Fiorinal No. 3 for Sedapap, which was prescribed, because of the nearly identical chemical properties of the two drugs. He explains to the pharmacist that Sedapap is out of stock and that the prescribing physician did indicate that a suitable substitution medication was allowed.
Anaphylactic shock could result in permanent disability or even death. Patients who are allergic to codeine may experience respiratory depression, reduced heart rate, or circulatory failure as a result of taking it. The pharmacy technician is also at fault because they didn't verify the patient's medical history before filling the prescription. The pharmacy technician should have double-checked the medication before it was given to the patient, and they should have confirmed that it was the correct medication for the patient's prescription. Furthermore, the pharmacist should have verified the technician's work before releasing the medication to the patient.
Therefore, both the physician and the pharmacy technician are at fault for the error. This mistake has the potential to have severe consequences, including disability or death. It is critical that physicians, pharmacists, and technicians exercise caution when prescribing and filling prescriptions and that they verify the patient's medical history before administering medication.
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5. Junction between main and auxiliary parts of a compound cavity is the: a) Axio-pulpalline angle. b) Isthmus portion. c) Dove tail. d) All of the above
The junction between the main and auxiliary parts of a compound cavity is the isthmus portion. A cavity is a defect in a tooth's structure caused by a variety of factors, such as dental caries or external trauma. When left untreated, the cavity can cause discomfort and dental problems.
A cavity preparation that has two or more openings but retains a single unifying cavity is referred to as a compound cavity. Compound cavities frequently occur in posterior teeth because of their proximity to the pulp chamber, which makes them difficult to prepare.
Cavity preparation in posterior teeth is usually more difficult than in anterior teeth because of the complexity of the tooth structure and the proximity of the pulp chamber.An isthmus is a narrow slit in the tooth's center that links the pulp chambers of different canals. An isthmus may develop as a result of developmental problems or caries.
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why are patient perspectives important? Why should doctors
understand patient perspectives?
Enhanced Communication Understanding patient perspectives allows doctors to communicate effectively with their patients.
By comprehending their concerns, beliefs, and expectations, doctors can tailor their communication style, language, and explanations to meet the specific needs of each patient. This leads to better comprehension, trust, and cooperation between doctors and patients.Patient-Centered Care: Patient perspectives are vital for delivering patient-centered care, where the focus is on addressing the individual needs, values, and goals of the patient.Patient perspectives play a crucial role in treatment adherence. When doctors understand their patients' perspectives, they can work collaboratively to develop treatment plans that align with the patient's values, priorities, and lifestyle.
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During this phase of deep wound healing formation of scar tissue
is completed
A. Maturation phase
B. Inflammatory phase
C. Proliferative phase
D. Migratory phase
E. Hypertrophic phase
During the Maturation phase (Option A) of deep wound healing, the formation of scar tissue is completed.
During the Maturation phase of deep wound healing, the formation of scar tissue is completed, marking the final stage of the healing process. This phase follows the inflammatory and proliferative phases and is characterized by the remodeling and strengthening of the newly formed tissue.
In the maturation phase, the initial collagen fibers that were laid down during the proliferative phase are gradually remodeled and reorganized to enhance the strength and functionality of the wound. Fibroblasts, which are responsible for producing collagen, continue to play a crucial role during this phase by reorganizing the collagen fibers into a more organized and aligned structure.
As the scar tissue matures, the blood supply to the area decreases, and the scar becomes paler and flatter. The scar may also undergo further changes, such as becoming softer and more flexible over time. However, it's important to note that the scar tissue will never regain the exact characteristics of the original tissue, and a scar will always remain.
The duration of the maturation phase can vary depending on various factors, including the size and depth of the wound, the individual's overall health, and the presence of any complications. This phase can last for several months to years, and during this time, it's important to protect the healing wound from excessive stress or trauma to promote optimal scar formation.
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Why do you think ICD 9 was change to ICD 10? How many codes were
in ICD 9 versus ICD 10.
ICD-9 was changed to ICD-10 to improve accuracy, specificity, and international compatibility in medical coding.
Accuracy and specificity: ICD-9 had limited space for new codes and lacked detail, leading to less accurate representation of diagnoses and procedures.
ICD-10 offers a more comprehensive classification system with greater specificity, enabling healthcare providers to capture a wider range of conditions and procedures in a more accurate manner.
Advancements in medical knowledge and technology: With medical advancements, the need for more detailed and specific codes became evident.
ICD-10 accommodates these advancements by providing an expanded set of codes that reflect the current understanding of diseases, treatments, and procedures.
International compatibility: ICD-9 was primarily used in the United States, making it difficult to exchange and compare healthcare data on an international scale. ICD-10 aligns with global standards, allowing for better international data exchange, research collaboration, and analysis.
Increased number of codes: ICD-9 had approximately 13,000 diagnosis codes and 3,000 procedure codes. In contrast, ICD-10 expanded significantly to around 68,000 diagnosis codes and 87,000 procedure codes.
This expansion enables healthcare providers to capture more specific and detailed information, resulting in improved patient care, research, and healthcare management.
By transitioning to ICD-10, the healthcare industry sought to address the limitations of ICD-9 and ensure that medical coding adequately reflects the evolving nature of healthcare practices.
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Using high quality electronic sources of healthcare information is an expectation of the Registered Nurse. Technology is used for medication administration, patient identification, and increasing continuity of care. The application of technology and information management help to support safe, quality care. Another responsibility of the professional nurse is to identify and utilize valid evidence-based practices. To ensure that best practices take place in healthcare, the nurse must understand when modification to evidence-based practices are necessary.
Post an example of your experience(s) with technology, patient confidentiality, and evidence-based practices. This can either be from a healthcare perspective, or in your everyday life.
What areas do you feel you are strong in knowledge and/or experience?
What areas do you feel you have the weakest knowledge and/or experience?
Technology, patient confidentiality, and evidence-based practices are integral to the role of a nurse, supporting safe and quality care through the use of electronic sources, maintaining privacy, and implementing best practices in healthcare.
Technology plays a crucial role in healthcare, including areas such as medication administration, patient identification, and continuity of care. Electronic health records (EHR) are used to securely store patient information, supporting safe and quality care.
Nurses are expected to utilize high-quality electronic sources of healthcare information and stay updated on evidence-based practices to provide optimal care. Patient confidentiality is maintained through technological safeguards like access controls and encryption. Nurses should be knowledgeable in identifying and utilizing evidence-based practices while recognizing when modifications may be necessary to individualize care. It is essential for nurses to continually enhance their knowledge and skills in these areas to ensure the delivery of safe and effective healthcare.
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The provider ordered heparin 1,200 units/hour. Heparin is available as 40,000 units in 1 L D5W. What is the correct IV flow rate in milliliters per hour? Enter your answer as a whole number. Use Desired-Over-Have method to show work.
The correct IV flow rate in milliliters per hour is 30 ml/hour.
To determine this, we can use the Desired-Over-Have method, which involves setting up a proportion:
Desired rate / Available rate = Desired amount / Available amount
In this case, the desired rate is 1,200 units/hour, and the available rate is 40,000 units/L of D5W.
Desired rate / 1 hour = 1,200 units
Available rate / 1 L = 40,000 units
To find the desired amount, we can set up the proportion:
1,200 units / 1 hour = x units / 1 L
Solving for x, we have:
x = (1,200 units / 1 hour) × (1 L / 40,000 units)
x = 0.03 L/hour
Since the question asks for the flow rate in milliliters per hour, we can convert liters to milliliters by multiplying by 1,000:
x = 0.03 L/hour × 1,000 ml/L
x = 30 ml/hour
Therefore, the correct IV flow rate is 30 ml/hour.
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no copy past .. no hand writing.. new answer.. maximum 200 words APA refrence style wanted
In certain cases it's legally and ethically appropriate for health professionals to proceed with a treatment without consent or proceed with a treatment that is against the patient decision, give your opinion in detail and examples. Also, what is capacity and when does an adult lack capacity?
Health professionals may proceed without consent or against a patient's decision in emergency situations or when the patient lacks decision-making capacity. Capacity refers to an individual's ability to understand and make informed decisions about their healthcare.
In certain cases, there may be situations where health professionals may need to proceed with treatment without obtaining explicit consent from the patient.
These situations typically involve emergencies where immediate action is necessary to preserve the patient's life or prevent serious harm.
For example, if a patient is unconscious and requires urgent medical intervention, healthcare providers may proceed with treatment in the best interest of the patient's health.
Regarding treatments that are against a patient's decision, there are situations where health professionals may override a patient's refusal of treatment.
This often occurs when the patient lacks decision-making capacity or is unable to fully comprehend the consequences of their decision due to mental impairment or other factors.
In such cases, healthcare providers may act in the patient's best interest, considering their well-being and the principles of beneficence and non-maleficence.
Capacity refers to an individual's ability to understand and make informed decisions about their own healthcare. It involves the ability to comprehend relevant information, appreciates the consequences of various options, and communicate a choice.
Adults may lack capacity due to various reasons, such as cognitive impairment, mental illness, or being under the influence of drugs or alcohol.
When an adult lacks capacity, healthcare professionals may need to make decisions on their behalf, taking into account any previously expressed wishes, advance directives, or the best interest of the individual.
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Sara is a nursing student. After failing the pharmacology exam, Sara and her classmates decide to go to the pub. After having a few drinks and reassuring her friends that she is fine to drive, Sara gets into her car and heads home. On her way home, she is stopped at a roadblock, where she is asked to take a breathalyzer test. Sara blows well over the legal limit and is charged with driving under the influence. Sara is now worried that she will now have a criminal record. She is strongly considering not telling BCCNM or her school because she does not want to be kicked out of the program.which Practice Standards and Professional Standards for LPNs are applicable. Hint: pay close attention to standards that relate to ethical practice and honesty and integrity. Be sure to include specific indicators from these Standards that apply to the case scenario.
include What factors might contribute to this issue?
What consequences might occur?
What might prevent this issue from occurring?
Professional and practice standard indicators were clearly represented and appropriately chosen for the topic.
shared a minimum of 6 indicators from the Standards.
Questions from the assignment were thoroughly
Practice Standards: LPNs should practice within their own level of competence and knowledge, recognize limitations, and seek guidance and direction as required. LPNs should practice in accordance with all relevant legislation.
LPNs should ensure that the public is protected from harm that may result from nursing interventions. LPNs should maintain confidentiality and privacy of clients.
LPNs should ensure their conduct and behavior does not compromise the integrity of the profession.
LPNs should promote healthy, respectful relationships with colleagues.
Professional Standards:
LPNs should demonstrate honesty, integrity, and fairness.
LPNs should be accountable for their actions.
LPNs should maintain confidentiality and privacy.
LPNs should have a duty to report to the appropriate authorities any actions by any nurse or other health care professional that place clients at risk.
Factors that might contribute to this issue:
Sara's decision to drink and drive after failing an exam.
Sara's lack of awareness of the dangers and risks of drinking and driving.
Sara's belief that she could handle the situation.
Consequences that might occur:
Sara's criminal record could affect her nursing license.
Sara's criminal record could affect her future employment opportunities.
Sara could lose her nursing license.
Sara could be expelled from nursing school.
Sara could face disciplinary action from BCCNM.
Sara should be aware of the dangers and risks of drinking and driving.
Sara should plan ahead and arrange for a designated driver or use public transportation if she plans on drinking.
Sara should be aware of the consequences of drinking and driving.
Sara should be aware of the ethical and professional standards that are expected of her as a nursing student.
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Calculation of Medications Used Intravenously cont. 3. A physician orders 3,000 mL lactated Ringer's solution to infuse over 16 hours. How many milliliters per hour should be administered?
The lactated Ringer's solution should be administered at a rate of approximately 187.5 milliliters per hour.
To calculate the milliliters per hour (mL/hr) for the lactated Ringer's solution, follow these steps:
Step 1: Determine the total volume of the solution.
Given that the physician ordered 3,000 mL of lactated Ringer's solution.
Step 2: Determine the infusion time.
Given that the infusion is to be completed over 16 hours.
Step 3: Calculate the milliliters per hour.
Divide the total volume by the infusion time:
Ml/hr = Total volume (mL) / Infusion time (hours)
Substituting the given values:
Ml/hr = 3,000 mL / 16 hours
Step 4: Perform the calculation.
Divide 3,000 mL by 16 hours:
Ml/hr = 3,000 mL / 16 hours
Ml/hr ≈ 187.5 mL/hr
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The nurse is caring for a patient with a large pleural effusion. What should the nurse be most concerned about?
A> Improving ventilation
B. Decreasing diffusion
C. Improving perfusion
D. Providing antibiotics
The nurse should be most concerned about improving ventilation in a patient with a large pleural effusion.
Pleural effusion: A pleural effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, the space between the membranes lining the lungs and the chest cavity. A large pleural effusion can significantly impact respiratory function.
Impaired ventilation: The presence of a large pleural effusion can restrict lung expansion and compromise the ability of the lungs to inflate fully. This can lead to decreased ventilation, resulting in inadequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Concerns with ventilation: In a patient with a large pleural effusion, the nurse should be most concerned about improving ventilation.
This involves ensuring that the patient can effectively move air in and out of their lungs, maintaining optimal oxygenation and carbon dioxide elimination.
Nursing interventions: The nurse can implement several interventions to improve ventilation in a patient with a large pleural effusion.
These may include positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position, administering supplemental oxygen, assisting with deep breathing and coughing exercises, and monitoring respiratory status closely.
Other considerations: While diffusion (B) and perfusion (C) are important aspects of respiratory function, in the context of a large pleural effusion, the primary concern is ensuring adequate ventilation.
Providing antibiotics (D) may be necessary if the pleural effusion is caused by an infection, but improving ventilation takes precedence.
In summary, in a patient with a large pleural effusion, the nurse should be most concerned about improving ventilation to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
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The provider prescribed 80 units regular insulin in 250 mL of NS to infuse at 10 units/hr. What is the correct infusion rate in milliliters per hour? Enter your answer as a whole number. Use Desired-Over-Have method to show work.
The correct infusion rate in milliliters per hour is 31 ml/hr.
To calculate the correct infusion rate in milliliters per hour, we need to use the Desired-Over-Have method. The Desired rate is 10 units/hr, and we have a concentration of 80 units in 250 mL of Normal Saline (NS).
To find the infusion rate in milliliters per hour, we set up a proportion using the Desired-Over-Have method:
Desired units : Have units = Desired rate : Have rate
80 units : 250 mL = 10 units : X mL/hr
Cross-multiplying the proportion, we get:
80 * X = 250 * 10
X = (250 * 10) / 80
X = 2500 / 80
X ≈ 31.25 mL/hr
However, since the question asks for the answer as a whole number, we round the result down to the nearest whole number. Therefore, the correct infusion rate in milliliters per hour is 31 mL/hr.
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Describe the main factors that can alter the rate of IV
infusion.
Discuss 3 complications that can occur related to IV
therapy
The main factors that can alter the rate of IV infusion include the size of the needle and the length of the tubing.
Three complications that can occur related to IV therapy:
Infection Air embolism Phlebitis What can affect IV infusion ?A larger needle or catheter will allow for a faster flow rate. Longer tubing will create more resistance, which will slow down the flow rate.
IV therapy can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, which can lead to infection. This is a serious complication that can be fatal. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein. It can be caused by irritation from the IV needle or catheter, or by infection. Phlebitis can be painful and can make it difficult to continue IV therapy.
Air can enter the bloodstream through an IV line. This is a rare but serious.
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. The patient must receive diphenhydramine 40 mg IM t.i.d.The
vialis labeled 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you administer
to this patient?
The amount of Diphenhydramine needed to be administered to a patient is 1.2mL, which is calculated by dividing 40 by 50.
It is stated in the problem that the vial is labeled 50 mg/mL. The dosage to be administered to the patient is 40 mg. To calculate the volume of diphenhydramine to be administered, we divide the required dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. This will give us the required volume of the medication to be administered.
Using the formula of concentration: concentration = amount of drug/volume of solution
We know that the dosage is 40 mg and the concentration is 50 mg/mL, thus: 50 mg/mL = 40mg/X, where X is the volume of the medication to be administered.
Cross-multiplying, we have: 50X = 40 x 1, therefore X = 40/50 = 0.8mL.
Therefore, the amount of Diphenhydramine needed to be administered to a patient is 0.8mL, which is calculated by dividing 40 by 50.
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LEARNING OBJECTIVES CHAPTER 10 IDENTIFYING AND APPLYING LANGUAGES OF LOVE Identify and apply the languages of love in specific situations Reflect on the impact of using love languages. INSTRUCTIONS For each of the situations below, offer examples of how the languages of love might be applied and reflect on what the impact might be of using love languages. 1. John and Daphne have been married for six months. He's in school full time during the day and works full time at night. Daphne works full time days and commutes an hour each way to her job. On the weekends, they're both extremely tired and John needs time to study. Lately they've been fighting about little things and John is afraid that the "honeymoon" is truly over. He could express his love to Daphne by (give specific examples for each of the love languages): Words of affection: Quality time: Gifts: Acts of Service: Physical touch: Which love language or combination of love languages do you think would be the most effective for John use? Why? 2.Cecilia and Jerry have been in a dating relationship for three years. Jerry is divorced and has two young children who he takes care of every other weekend. Jerry has expressed feelings of love for Cecilia, but he's nervous about making another long term commitment. After three years, Cecelia is ready for a commitment. She would like to have children of her own and is anxious about "wasting her time" with a man who doesn't want what she wants. For a while, Cecelia has been showing her discontent by picking lots of fights about small things. But she does love him and still has hopes for the future. She would like to express her love to Jerry and see if they can deepen their commitment (give specific examples for each of the love languages): Words of affection: Quality time: Gifts: Acts of Service: Physical touch: Adapted from Adler & Proctor, Looking Out, Looking In, Student Activities Manual, 15th ed Which love language or combination of love languages do you think would be the most effective for Cecilia to use? Why? 3.Jane and Samantha have been in a committed romantic relationship for more than 10 years. The state in which they 3.Jane and Samantha have been in a committed romantic relationship for more than 10 years. The state in which they live has recently passed a law making it legal for them to marry. They happily set a date for their wedding, but since that time Jane and Samantha have had many arguments. Jane has been feeling very depressed because many of her family members are against her getting married and have told her that they will not attend. Samantha's family has been very supportive and are actively participating in planning the big event. Jane has withdrawn from participating in the preparations. Instead of fighting, Samantha would like to reconnect with Jane and engage her in their wedding plans in a positive way. (give specific examples for each of the love languages): Words of affection: Quality time: Gifts: Acts of Service: Physical touch: Which love language or combination of love languages do you think would be the most effective for Samantha to use? Why? 4.Using your romantic relationship or the romantic relationship of someone close to you, share expressions of love (give specific examples for each of the love languages): Words of affection: X Quality time: Gifts: Acts of Service: Physical touch: Which love language or combination of love languages do you think would be the most effective to use?
The love languages of John and Daphne are:
Words of affectionQuality timeGiftsWhat is love languagesWords of love: John seem express his cherish to Daphne by taking off small notes or sending content messages all through the day, communicating his appreciation for her difficult work and commitment.
Quality time: John might arrange a extraordinary date night where they can spend continuous time together, such as going for a walk, having a excursion, or observing a motion picture at domestic.
Blessings: John might astonish Daphne with little astute endowments, such as her favorite nibble, a book she's been needing to perused, or a unwinding shower set.
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Problem solving frameworks Conduct research to identify and summarise and explain the following problem-solving frameworks used in nursing care: HEIDIE . TIME Your answer should be between 300-400 words in length,
In nursing care, problem-solving frameworks are critical in addressing the issues that patients face. Two of the most common problem-solving frameworks are HEIDIE and TIME. These frameworks help nursing professionals to identify the root causes of the problems and to come up with an effective solution to the problem.
HEIDIE is an acronym for identifying, exploring, developing, implementing, and evaluating. The first step in the HEIDIE problem-solving framework is to identify the issue. The nursing professionals use their assessment skills to determine the problem and the factors that led to the problem. The next step is to explore the possible solutions to the problem. In this step, the nursing professional uses research to gather information about the possible solutions to the problem. The third step is to develop a plan to address the problem. In this step, the nursing professional develops a care plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken to address the problem.
The second step is to identify the type of problem. In this step, the nursing professional uses their assessment skills to determine the type of problem that the patient is facing. The third step is to mitigate the impact of the problem. In this step, the nursing professional takes steps to minimize the impact of the problem on the patient. The last step is to empower the patient. In this step, the nursing professional works with the patient to develop a care plan that empowers the patient to manage their problem on their own.
In conclusion, the HEIDIE and TIME problem-solving frameworks are critical in nursing care. These frameworks help nursing professionals to identify the root causes of the problems and to come up with an effective solution to the problem.
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The fusion of the common hepatic duct with the cystic duct forms the O porta hepatis. O common pancreatic duct. O common bile duct. O bile canaliculus. 2 points
The fusion of the common hepatic duct with the cystic duct forms the common bile ductThe common bile duct is a part of the digestive system. It is created by the union of the common hepatic duct with the cystic duct.
The porta hepatis is a crucial anatomical landmark in the human body. It is a term that refers to the area that is found on the underbelly of the liver. The porta hepatis is an entry point into the liver. It contains many important structures including the portal vein, hepatic artery, and the common bile duct. This area is of great importance as it provides a vital access point to the liver for surgical and other medical procedures.
In summary, the fusion of the common hepatic duct with the cystic duct forms the common bile duct. The porta hepatis is a crucial anatomical landmark that refers to the area found on the underbelly of the liver and it contains the common bile duct as well as other important structures such as the portal vein and hepatic artery
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All questions apply to this case study. Your responses should be brief and to the point. When asked to provide several answers, list them in order of priority or significance. Do not assume information that is not provided. SITUATION: L.S. is a 7-year-old who has been brought to the emergency department (ED) by his mother. She immediately tells you he has a history of ED visits for his asthma. He uses an inhaler when he wheezes, but it ran out a month ago. She is a single parent and has two other children at home with a babysitter. Your assessment finds L.S. alert, oriented, and extremely anxious. His color is pale, and his nail beds are dusky and cool to the touch; other findings are heart rate 136 beats/min, respiratory rate 36 breaths/min regular and even, oral temperature 37.3" C (99.1* F). Sa02 89%, breath sounds decreased in lower lobes bilaterally and congested with inspiratory and expiratory wheezes, prolonged expirations, and a productive cough. QUESTIONS: 1. As you ask Ms. S. questions, you note that LS.'s respiratory rate is increasing; he is sitting on the side of the bed, leaning slightly forward, and is having difficulty breathing. Give interventions are appropriate at this time and rationalize it. 2. Identify the nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators,
1. The appropriate interventions and their rationales in response to L.S. respiratory rate increase, difficulty in breathing and wheezing.
As soon as you have discovered that L.S. is having difficulty breathing and respiratory rate increasing, it is critical to act quickly to avoid further deterioration in his condition. Below are some of the appropriate interventions that should be taken and their rationales: Elevate the head of the bed: Elevating the head of the bed is beneficial in decreasing the workload on L.S.'s respiratory system.
It promotes optimal chest expansion and reduces shortness of breath. It is beneficial to keep L.S. in a semi-Fowler's position as it helps the chest muscles relax and improve oxygenation. Sit him in an upright position: This will facilitate his breathing by allowing his chest muscles to work efficiently and decreasing the work of breathing.
Oxygen administration: The oxygen should be given through a face mask at the rate of 6-8 L/min to L.S. since his SpO2 is low. Adequate oxygen administration will help L.S. breathe and increase oxygen delivery to tissues.
Bronchodilators administration: Since L.S. has a history of asthma, bronchodilators (such as albuterol) should be administered to him through a nebulizer to help alleviate the wheezing and restore normal breathing patterns. Bronchodilators work to dilate the airways and allow better ventilation.
Periodic assessment: Continuous monitoring of his vital signs, especially the respiratory rate, heart rate, and blood pressure, will help detect any deterioration in his condition early and prompt intervention.
Frequent assessment of breath sounds is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions and adjust them accordingly.
2. The nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators:
Bronchodilators are medications used to help dilate airways in the lungs and ease breathing. Below are the nursing responsibilities associated with giving bronchodilators:
Verify the correct medication: It is essential to check the medication name, dose, and expiry date before giving it to the patient.
Ensure that it is the correct medication and dose that has been prescribed.
Administer the medication as per the doctor's orders: This involves placing the medication into the nebulizer cup and administering it via a nebulizer. You must monitor the patient's vital signs and observe for any adverse reactions that may occur.
Documentation: It is essential to document the administration of medication and any adverse reactions that may occur. The documentation should include the date, time, medication, dose, route of administration, and patient's response to the medication. This documentation will help track the patient's progress and adjust the medication regimen accordingly.
Inform the patient:
Before administering bronchodilators, you must inform the patient about the medication, its purpose, and any potential side effects that may occur.
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Tell me about the pattern of addiction and what predisposes a
patient to it?
Addiction often follows a pattern of repeated substance use despite negative consequences, leading to physical and psychological dependence.
Experimentation: Individuals may initially experiment with substances out of curiosity, peer pressure, or to cope with stress or emotional issues.
Regular use: Continued use of substances leads to regular or frequent consumption, as individuals may enjoy the pleasurable effects or use them to alleviate negative emotions.
Tolerance and dependence: Over time, the body develops tolerance, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effects. Dependence occurs when the body becomes reliant on the substance to function normally.
Withdrawal symptoms: Upon cessation or reduction of substance use, individuals may experience withdrawal symptoms, such as cravings, anxiety, insomnia, or physical discomfort.
Compulsion and loss of control: Addiction is characterized by a loss of control over substance use, with individuals unable to stop despite negative consequences on their health, relationships, and daily functioning.
Factors predisposing a patient to addiction:
Genetic factors: Certain genetic variations can increase vulnerability to addiction by affecting the way substances interact with the brain's reward system.
Environmental factors: Exposure to a family history of addiction, peer pressure, trauma, stress, or availability of substances can contribute to the development of addiction.
Mental health disorders: Individuals with mental health conditions, such as depression, anxiety, or trauma-related disorders, are more susceptible to addiction as they may use substances as a form of self-medication.
Social and cultural influences: Social norms, cultural acceptance, and societal attitudes towards substance use can influence an individual's likelihood of developing an addiction.
Childhood experiences: Early exposure to substance abuse, neglect, abuse, or unstable family environments can increase the risk of addiction in later life.
Understanding the pattern of addiction and the factors that predispose individuals to it is crucial for prevention, early intervention, and effective treatment approaches.
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Ismail, 19-year-old, is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents with breathlessness, wheezing and coughing. For the past three days Ismail has been experiencing mild exacerbation of his asthma on exertion. His inhalers have been ineffective, and he has a productive cough of thick whitish sputum and a "runny nose". According to Ismail, he has been experiencing high levels of stress due to his impending examinations. He shared that many of his classmates are also "down with flu". Past Medical History Asthma, last hospitalization 2 years ago, and last course of oral corticosteroids a year ago Social History Lives with mother, father, and two siblings, both of whom have asthma. There have two cats at home. Father is a smoker, but states that he tries to smoke outside and not around the kids. Nursing Assessment Neurological: Alert and orientated to time, place and person, appears anxious and scared, Pupils equal and reactive to light (PEARL) Respiratory: RR 36 breaths per minute, SPO2 89% on room air, audible wheeze heard bilaterally. Cardiovascular: BP 110/64mmHg, HR 120 beats per minute, Temperature 37.1ºC Gastrointestinal: No nausea/vomiting, bowel sounds normoactive Renal: has difficulty-passing urine Integumentary: dry and pale in colour Other: Chest x-ray-normal, sputum c/s- negative Doctor’s Orders: O2 at 3LPM nasal cannula if SpO2 ≤ 90% Hourly vital signs Medications Nebulisation salbutamol: ipratropium Bromide: sodium chloride 2:1:2 4-6 hourly/PRN PO prednisolone 30 mg OM PO augmentin 500 BD PO acetylcysteine 600mg OM Discharge Medications MDI salbutamol 2 puffs TDS/ PRN MDI budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort) 160/4.5 mcg, 2 puffs BD/PRN
which prescribed medications are only needed for the patient in this case?
Nebulisation Salbutamol: Ipratropium Bromide: Sodium Chloride 2:1:2 4-6 hourly/PRN, PO Prednisolone 30 mg OM, PO Augmentin 500 BD, and PO Acetylcysteine 600mg OM are the prescribed medications that are needed for the patient in this case.
According to the given case, the patient Ismail, 19-year-old, is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents with breathlessness, wheezing, and coughing. Ismail has been suffering a moderate aggravation of his asthma on exertion for the previous three days. His inhalers haven't worked, and he also has a "runny nose" and a strong cough that produces thick, white-colored phlegm.
Based on the nursing assessment, the patient has a respiratory rate (RR) of 36 breaths per minute, SPO2 of 89% on room air, and audible wheeze heard bilaterally. Therefore, the prescribed medications that are needed for the patient in this case are Nebulisation Salbutamol: Ipratropium Bromide: Sodium Chloride 2:1:2 4-6 hourly/PRN, PO Prednisolone 30 mg OM, PO Augmentin 500 BD, and PO Acetylcysteine 600mg OM.
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