The primary goal of a triage method utilized by nurses with patients arriving to the emergency department is to identify the severity of the client's condition in order to establish priority of care.
In the emergency room, "triage" refers to the procedures used to quickly assess patients' degree of injury or sickness, assign priority, and move each patient to a right facility for care. ED prioritization is a systematic method of sorting and categorizing patients based on the severity of their sickness or damage.
The major purpose of the triage method is to assist the ED nurse in prioritising care based on the acuity of the patient, with clients with more serious illnesses or injuries examined first. The core survey includes questions on the airway, breathing, and circulation. The primary purpose is not to determine response during the disability stage of the primary survey. Triage does not aim to evaluate the ED's resources.
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A nurse is caring for a cognitively impaired nonverbal patient on a medical-surgical unit. In what ways should the nurse assess the patient's pain
The ways by which the nurse can assess the pain of the cognitively impaired nonverbal patient are: (1) The behavioral pain scale, (2) Nonverbal pain assessment tool, and (3) A pain estimate made by a family member.
Cognitive impairment refers to the condition where the person is unable to perform the cognitive functions of the brain like learning, remembering, concentrating or making simple decisions of everyday life. Hence it is a decline in the mental abilities of a person.
A pain scale is a medical tool used by the doctors to estimate the pain of the patient. These range from the numbers 0 to 10, where 0 indicates no pain while 10 indicates intense pain.
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The nurse is reinforcing education to a client with a venous thromboembolism who is prescribed rivaroxaban. Which statement by the client indicates the medication teaching has been effective?
1. "I need to continue to avoid eating spinach and kale."
2. "I probably will have some weakness in my legs when I take this medicine."
3. "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
4. "I will have to get blood drawn routinely to check my clotting levels."
Answer: 3 "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
Factor Xa inhibitors (eg, rivaroxaban [Xarelto], edoxaban, apixaban) are anticoagulants used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism. Factor Xa inhibitors are being prescribed more frequently than other oral anticoagulants (eg, warfarin), as they have a lower risk of bleeding and require less ongoing monitoring (eg, PT/INR).
The combined anticoagulant effects increase the risk for uncontrolled bleeding and hemorrhage.
What is rivaroxaban ?
Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant drug (blood thinner) used to treat and prevent blood clots. It is marketed under the trade names Xarelto and others. In particular, it is used to avoid blood clots in atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary emboli as well as to treat these conditions, as well as to prevent them after hip or knee surgery. It is ingested orally.
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An outbreak of salmonellosis occurred after an epidemiology department luncheon, which was attended by 485 faculty and staff. Assume everyone ate the same food items. Sixty-five people had fever and diarrhea; five of these people were severely affected. Subsequent laboratory tests on everyone who attended the luncheon revealed an additional 72 cases. Foods served at the luncheon included home-canned olives, chicken salad, homemade flavored drink mix, freshly baked rolls, and raw vegetables. Based on your understanding of foods that potentially are capable of transmitting salmonella, the most likely source of the outbreak was:
Answer:
Raw vegetables could possibly be the cause.
Explanation:
Raw fruits and vegetables can be potentially transmittable foods for salmonellosis; it is especially dangerous when raw vegetables are not properly disinfected, so it is important to wash them with drinking water and carry out an adequate disinfection process.
To prepare the chicken salad, the chicken was possibly previously cooked.
Answer:
137/137+348 = 28.2%
Explanation:
During his appointment, your client appears anxious. He begins to cough and wheeze, experiences dyspnea, and begins to appear cyanotic. What emergency treatment should be initiated with this client
The emergency treatment which should be initiated with the client is to advice him to go for full body check up so as to determine which disease they are suffering from actually.
A person who is anxious and coughing or wheezing must be suffering from asthma and in such patients utmost care is to be taken to ensure that they are able to breath properly and the medication through inhalers is present with them in all times. In sudden asthma attacks, the person should be given open environment and asked to sit straight and undergo deep breathing until they get their prescribed inhalers. Inhalers are devices that let you breathe in medicine, are the main treatment.
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Which of the following is the best definition of communication?
Exchanging messages
Texting someone
Persuading someone of your viewpoint
Simplifying information for a lay audience
Read Question
Answer:
Simplifying information for a lay audience
Explanation:
texting someone is non verbal communication same goes for exchanging messages
I think the fourth one would be the best definition of communication
A nurse should recognize that which of the following is an indication for oxygen therapy?
A) Respiratory rate 32/min; anxiety
B) Dyspnea; PaO2 90 mm Hg
C) Chest pain; FiO2 65% for 4 days
D) Tachypnea; SaO2 90%
D) Tachypnea; SaO2 90% - Patients who are at risk for or have gotten hypoxia should receive treatment. Heart rate raises and arterial oximetry (SaO2) drops below 94% in the initial phases of hypoxia.
Describe hypoxia.Low oxygen levels in your tissues and organs are known as hypoxia. It causes in characteristics including bluish skin, forgetfulness, nervousness, difficulty breathing, and a racing heart. You may be at risk for hypoxia if you have one of many chronic heart and lung conditions.
What is the main reason behind hypoxia?However, hypoxia is most typically brought on by human-caused factors, particularly nutrient contamination. Agricultural runoff, combustion of fossil fuels and treating wastewater effluent are some of the elements that contribute to excess nutrients, particularly the pollution of nitrogen and phosphorus. nutrients.
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A 23-year-old primigravida is at her first prenatal appointment today. Ultrasound indicates that she is at 9 weeks' gestation. She asks when she can first expect to feel her baby move. What is the best response by the nurse
The best response by the nurse to a 23-year-old primigravida is "Many women are able to first feel light movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
The first prenatal appointment generally takes place in the alternate month, between week 6 and week 8 of gestation. Be sure to call as soon as you suspect you are pregnant and have taken a gestation test. Some interpreters will be suitable to fit you in right down, but others may have delays of several weeks( or longer).
Ultrasound, also called sonography or individual medical sonography, is an imaging system that uses sound swells to produce images of structures within your body. The images can give precious information for diagnosing and directing treatment for a variety of conditions and conditions.
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individual health policies contain both mandatory and optional provisions. an example of an optional provision would be
Individual health insurance policies include both obligatory and voluntary components. Change of Occupation is an example of an optional provision.
Mandatory Provisions are provisions there under Residential Tenancies Act 1997 (Vic) that imply conditions into the agreement or give rise to rights or responsibilities on the part of the Landlord or the Tenant that cannot be omitted, changed, or restricted. Uniform Policy is an optional policy. Provisions include the responsibility to notify the insurer of changes in one's income, particularly if caused by a handicap, or shifts to a more or less hazardous vocation.
Mediclaim or hospitalisation plans represent the most fundamental form of health insurance. Once you are taken to the hospital, they pay for your care. The compensation is based on real hospital expenditures submitted as original invoices. Most of these policies provide coverage for the entire family up to a specified limit.
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The nurse manager of an ICU wants to implement the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care. What would be the most effective method of getting the staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care
The most effective method of getting staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care would be through education and training.
Education and training are key to the successful implementation of a new evidence-based practice. The nurse manager should start by providing the staff nurses with information about the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care, including the evidence that supports it and how it differs from current practice. The manager should also provide opportunities for the staff nurses to ask questions and provide feedback, which can help to address any concerns they may have. After this,the manager should provide hands-on training and give the staff nurses the opportunity to practice the new skills in a safe and controlled environment. Finally, the manager should provide ongoing support, including regular check-ins and supervision, to ensure that the staff nurses are able to consistently implement the new practice and provide quality care to patients. In addition, regular feedback and evaluation of the new practice implementation will be helpful to measure the effectiveness of the new practice and make necessary adjustments.
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When Vatican II convened, it was decided that the Sacrament of Anointing of the Sick should be both a sacrament of healing and a sacrament to prepare those who are dying.
A Christian rite that is acknowledged as being exceptionally significant and vital is called a sacrament. The presence, number, and significance of such rites, there are numerous points of view.
Many Christians view the sacraments as both a vehicle for God's mercy and a tangible proof of God's actuality. Many religious groups adhere to Augustine of Hippo's definition of a sacrament, which is as follows: an outward indication of an internal grace that has been instituted by Jesus Christ. These groups include the Catholic, Lutheran, Anglican, Methodist, and Reformed. Sacraments represent God's grace in a tangible way that the participant may see.
Vatican II, which was the 21st ecumenical council of the Catholic Church, was held from 1962 to 1965. One of the decisions made during the council was to revise the understanding and practice of the sacrament of Anointing of the Sick, also known as Last Rites or Extreme Unction. Prior to the council, the sacrament was primarily associated with the forgiveness of sins for those on their deathbeds. However, Vatican II emphasized that the sacrament should also be understood as a sacrament of healing, to be given to those who are ill, as well as to those who are approaching death. This change in understanding and practice was reflected in the revised Rite of Anointing, which was issued following the council.
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The nurse is reinforcing health care provider education on the technique for an amniocentesis. Which piece of equipment will the nurse have ready
The piece of equipment that the nurse should keep ready when reinforcing health care provider education on the technique for an amniocentesis is an ultrasound.
Amniocentesis is the test performed during pregnancy to check if the fetus has correct genetic sequences and is free from any genetic disease. For the test, the amniotic fluid that surrounds the growing fetus in the mother's womb is collected.
Ultrasound is a diagnostic as well as a therapeutic test, also known by the name sonography. It makes use of the sound waves in order to form the images of the inside of the body.
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The nurse completes the initial assessment of a newborn. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation
Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory difficulty in the newborn. finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation
When you breathe, your nostrils may flare up slightly. It can be an indication that you're experiencing trouble breathing. Children and infants are most frequently affected by it. It could be a sign of respiratory discomfort in some situations.
Why do my Nasal flaring up?
There are several reasons that can lead to nasal flaring, from short-term diseases to chronic ailments and accidents. It could also be a result of strenuous exercise. Nasal flare-ups are not normal when breathing comfortably.
infection from bacteria and viruses
If you have a serious infection, like the flu, you might see your nostrils flare. People with severe respiratory illnesses like pneumonia and bronchiolitis are the ones who experience it the most frequently.
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In a typical controlled experiment designed to test the effects of a new drug, _______ will be administered to the _______ group. Group of answer choices the drug and the placebo; control only the placebo; control the drug and the placebo; experimental only the placebo; experimental
In a typical controlled experiment designed to test the effects of a new drug, placebo will be administered to the control group.
The placebo and control group are an essential part of a controlled experiment designed to test the effects of a new drug. The placebo is a harmless, inactive substance, such as a sugar pill, given to the control group, which is a group of participants who do not receive the drug being tested.
This group serves as a comparison to the group that does receive the drug, which is known as the experimental group. By comparing the two groups, researchers can determine whether the new drug has any effect on the participants. Without the placebo and control group, it would be impossible to determine whether any observed changes are due to the drug or if they are simply the result of a placebo effect.
The placebo and control group also serve to minimize bias by ensuring that the experimental group and the control group are as similar as possible in terms of age, gender, health, and other factors.
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The nurse is caring for a postoperative client with a Hemovac. The Hemovac is expanded and contains approximately 25 cc of serosanguineous drainage. The best nursing action would be to:
The Hemovac of postoperative client is expanded and contains approximately 25 cc of serosanguineous drainage, so the best nursing action would be to empty and measure the drainage and compress the hemovac.
The wound drainage system that you have in place is called a Hemovac. Its purpose is to collect fluid from your surgical area by the use of suction. By removing this fluid, your surgical area will be suitable to heal briskly with lower threat of infection.
Serosanguineous drainage is the most common type of wound drainage buried by an open wound in response to towel damage. It's a thin and watery fluid that's pink in color due to the presence of small quantities of red blood cells.
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which of the following statements is not true about ‘learning?’
Answer:
oki! mizuki here to help! B should be the correct answer!
Explanation:
ok, so I am pretty sure A, C, D is true so the left option is B.
Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a woman is developing a postpartum complication?
A) an absence of lochia
B) red-colored lochia for the first 24 hours
C) lochia that is the color of menstrual blood
D) lochia appearing pinkish-brown on the fourth day
An absence of lochia lead nurses to suspect that a woman is developing a postpartum complication. Women should discharge their after giving birth. No flow is abnormal; This indicates dehydration due to infection and fever.
What are the three postpartum periods?The postpartum period can be divided into three distinct periods; early or acute phase, 8 to 19 hours after birth; the subacute postpartum period, which lasts two to six weeks, and the late postpartum period, which can last up to eight months.
What is the most common cause of postpartum?After giving birth, a drastic drop in the levels of the hormones estrogen and progesterone in your body can contribute to postpartum depression. Other hormones produced by the thyroid gland can also plummet, leaving you feeling tired, sluggish, and depressed. Emotional problem.
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during the vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse idetnfies the presenting part as the scapula. Which fetal presentation does the nurse recognize
the nurse idetnfies the presenting part as the scapula. Which fetal presentation does the nurse recognize Shoulder
The bone that attaches the clavicle to the humerus is known as the scapula, or shoulder blade. The shoulder girdle's posterior portion is formed by the scapula. This bone is flat, triangular, and strong. Several groups of muscles can attach to the scapula.The scapula is what kind of a bone?
A flat, triangular-shaped bone is the scapula (colloquially as the "shoulder blade"). It is situated on the dorsal side of the rib cage in the upper thoracic area. It forms the shoulder joint by joining with the humerus at the glenohumeral joint and the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint.
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Individuals should participate in activities __________ to improve cardiovascular fitness. A. twice a day B. three to five days a week C. two to three days a week D. seven days a week Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D Mark this and return
Individuals should participate in activities three to five days a week to improve cardiovascular fitness. Thus, the correct answer is B.
Three to five days a week is the recommendation from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) and the American Heart Association (AHA) for adults to participate in moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 150 minutes per week, or vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 75 minutes per week, or a combination of both, spread across at least three days of the week. This frequency of physical activity is sufficient to achieve cardiovascular fitness and improve overall health.
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Answer: b
Explanation:
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)
Children should be restricted to approximately 30 minutes of vigorous exercise in hot and humid environments including frequent rest periods.
Exercise is any form of physical activity of the body that results in a healthy and active body. There are several forms of exercise from mild brisk walking to high intensity exercises like weight lifting, cardio, etc. The goal for exercising could be different among different individuals like weight loss, muscle gain, fitness, etc.
Rest period is the small duration time interval where a person does not exercise. The aim of rest period is that the body gains back its strength and power. The muscles are allowed to recover during this stage. It usually lasts from 2-5 minutes.
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A nurse is providing teaching to clients in a short-term rehabilitation facility. Which examples are common teaching mistakes made by health care professionals
In a short-term rehabilitation facility The nurse does not acknowledge the client's right to change their decision.
When describing the lesson plan, the nurse frequently refers to medical terminology.
The nurse disregards the environment's limitations for the client.
Along with the promotion of wellness, disease prevention, treatment, and palliative care, rehabilitation is a crucial component of universal health coverage.
Rehabilitation supports involvement in education, employment, leisure activities, and significant life roles like caring for a family and promotes independence in daily activities for children, adults, and elderly individuals.
There are currently 2.4 billion people living with a health condition that would benefit from rehabilitation on a global scale.
Due to changes in population health and features, there will likely be a greater need for rehabilitation services globally. For instance, although individuals are living longer, there are more chronic illnesses and disabilities.
Rehabilitative needs are still mostly unfulfilled. More than 50% of people live in several low- and middle-income countries.
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A woman birth her infant 24 hours ago by cesarean. Which assessment findings should be reported to the assigned nurse
The assessment findings that should be reported to the assigned nurse are:
Uterus feels boggyThe client reports breakthrough pain level of 7-8The client may face a variety of discomforts and issues following a caesarean section delivery. The fundal height is normal in this case, the volume of blood is normal, and minor abdominal distention with hypoactive bowel sound is predicted. The swampy uterus and elevated pain level are significant observations that should be mentioned to the RN. A swollen uterus might cause bleeding, and pain levels of 7-8 must be treated with prescribed opiates.
Caesarean section, often known as C-section or caesarean birth, is a surgical technique in which one or more infants are born through an incision in the mother's belly, which is frequently used because vaginal delivery might endanger the baby or mother.
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During pregnancy a woman's cardiovascular system expands to care for the growing fetus. After birth, during the early postpartum period, the woman eliminates the additional fluid volume she has been carrying. What is one way she does this
One way a woman eliminates the additional fluid volume she has been carrying during the early postpartum period is through urinary elimination.
After birth, the woman's body works to return to its pre-pregnancy state and one of the ways it does this is by excreting the excess fluid through urine. This process is facilitated by the increased blood flow to the kidneys, which helps to filter and excrete the excess fluid. The body also increases urine production, which helps to get rid of the excess fluid more quickly. Other ways that a woman can eliminate additional fluid volume include sweating and bowel movements.
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smoke free laws, fluoridation of drinking water, and fortification of flour with folic acid are examples of which type of public health intervention
Changing the context to make the default decision healthy type of public health intervention
Any activity or program that seeks to enhance the overall physical and mental well-being of the population is considered a public
health intervention. Governmental health departments and non-governmental groups are just two examples of the entities that may carry out public health interventions (NGOs). Typical intervention kinds include screening programs, vaccinations, supplemental food and drink, and health promotion. Obesity, use of drugs, alcohol, and tobacco[4], and the spread of infectious diseases, such HIV, are common problems that are the focus of public health efforts.
If a policy avoids disease on both an individual and community level and has a beneficial effect on public health, it may fit the definition of a public health intervention.
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After providing AM care to a client receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube, the nurse notes a sudden decrease in the pulse oximetry reading. How will the nurse assess endotracheal tube placement
It is not a way to verify endotracheal tube placement to obtain arterial blood gases.
Endotracheal Tube (ETT) is an airway catheter that is inserted into the trachea through the mouth or nose in endotracheal intubation. The ETT is inserted into the patient's trachea to ensure that the trachea is not blocked as the respiratory tract and breathable air can enter the lungs. The ETT is the most reliable tool in ensuring the airway remains clear.
The main modality for verifying ETT placement is a combination of:
chest rises,breath sounds, andAssess tidal CO2 via capnography.This question is multiple choice:
a. End-tidal carbon dioxide levelb. Auscultate lung soundsc. Obtain arterial blood gasd. Monitor for symmetrical chest movementThe correct answer is C.
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what is the purpose of the reflex arc
what is the primary difference between an automatic aed and a semi-automatic aed?
The primary difference between an automatic AED and a semi-automatic AED is that semi-automatic AED will firstly ask before giving a shock, whereas, automatic AED will automatically give the shock.
Semi-automatic AEDs will ask the deliverer to press a button to deliver a shock to the victim, therefore leaving it up to them to actually deliver the treatment. Completely automatic AEDs, on the other hand, automate this entire process and will deliver the shock automatically.
When the pads are in place, the AED automatically measures the person's heart meter and determines if a shock isneeded.However, the machine tells the stoner to stand back and push a button to deliver the shock, If it is. The AED is programmed not to deliver a shock if a shock is not demanded.
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which medication is beneficial for reducing presurgery anxiety and decreasing the patient's ability to remmber an uncomfortable medical procedure
Midazolam is the medication that can reduce the pre-surgery anxiety and decrease the patient's ability to remember an uncomfortable medical procedure.
Midazolam is a medicine that can induce amnesia and therefore temporarily reduced the memory of the patient. It also produced the effect of sleepiness or drowsiness. It belongs to the class of benzodiazepines that are known to slow down the brain activity.
Anxiety is the response of the body when under stress. It causes shivering, palpitations, fastening of heart rate and also tiredness. A person feels uneasy during anxiety. Anxiety is normal during stress conditions but may be problematic when person suffers anxiety even in normal situations.
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The student wants information about a patient's renal function. What test does the healthcare professional tell the student to evaluate
The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue.
Renal function tests (RFT) are a collection of tests used to measure kidney (renal) function. The tests assess the amounts of numerous components in the blood, such as minerals, electrolytes, proteins, or glucose (sugar), to identify the present state of the kidneys.
When the kidneys aren't working correctly, waste products build up in the blood and fluid levels rise to hazardous levels, causing harm to the body or even a potentially life-threatening condition. A variety of disorders and diseases can cause kidney injury. Diabetes and hypertension are the most frequent causes and risk factors for renal disease. The most feasible clinical tests to measure renal function are to determine the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and also to look for proteinuria (albuminuria).
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When one physician offers to pay another physician for the referral of patients, this illegal practice is known as:
When one physician offers to pay another physician for the referral of patients, this illegal practice is known as fee splitting.
Fee splitting is the practise of dividing payments with professional peers, such as doctors or attorneys, in exchange for recommendations. This is effectively a compensation paid to the referrer with the sole goal of ensuring that the referring doctor directs patient referrals to the payee. Fee splitting is commonly hidden in most areas of the world since it is regarded immoral and improper.
Many countries prohibit the promotion of health services through mass media, advertisements, and other direct promotions, and information on pricing and quality of care institutions and medicines reaches patients through their primary care physician, many of whom engage in an unethical referral fee split practise to refer a patient for business to a higher specialist, brand prescription, and admissions.
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you are called to the home of a female patient in cardiac arrest. as you walk into the scene, you discover the first responders have just performed a combination of cpr and use of an aed amd she has remained a pulse; however, she remains unconscious and is not breathing. her husband arrives and hands you what appears to be a valid do not resuscitate order and asks that you discontinue your efforts to save her. what should you do next
You should immediately stop all resuscitation efforts and contact the patient's physician to confirm the validity of the DNR order. If the order is valid, you should follow the instructions on the order and provide comfort care to the patient and her family.