what was the basic controversy in the hetch hetchy valley debate? a. the hetch hetchy valley was located in yosemite national park. b. water in the valley was needed for use in san francisco's municipal water system. c. the controversy pitted naturalists against the needs of urban populations. d. all of the above.

Answers

Answer 1

The basic controversy in the hetch hetchy valley debate all of the above. option (D) is correct.

Between 1908 and 1913, Congress discussed whether to make a water asset accessible or protect a wild while the developing city of San Francisco, California proposed fabricating a dam in the Hetch Hetchy Valley to supply give a consistent water.

Hetch Henchy was once a brilliant cold mass cut valley, with rising above feigns and flows streaming onto a peaceful valley floor. Trailblazer progressive John Muir considered it a "surprisingly definite partner" to the now widely popular Yosemite Valley - 15 miles to its south.

Therefore, option (D) is correct.

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in which of the following ways does national conflict differ from ethnic conflict? a. ethnic conflict has already achieved sovereignty; in national conflict, it has not been achieved. b. ethnic conflict can result from national conflict, but national conflict does not result from ethnic conflict. c. national conflict is typically more violent than ethnic conflict. d. national conflict has an independent state as a core goal; ethnic conflict does not.

Answers

Option C is the correct option as  national conflict is typically more violent than ethnic conflict. Although both national and ethnic disputes are caused by identity differences, they are distinct from one another in terms of their character, extent, and goals.

National conflicts are also typically more violent than ethnic conflicts, as they involve a struggle for control of a particular geographic area, often with competing claims to sovereignty. Ethnic conflicts, while still potentially violent, may be less so, as they often involve struggles for cultural, linguistic, or religious rights rather than territorial control.

The goal of the conflict is a key distinction between national and racial conflict. In national conflicts, achieving statehood, founding a fresh, autonomous state, or bringing a fractured country back together is the main objective.

In comparison, ethnic strife may not always have this goal in mind. Instead, it frequently aims to increase a certain ethnic group's sovereignty or legitimacy within an already-existing state.

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a privilege covers: group of answer choices face-to-face conversations. telephone calls. messages sent by fax. all of the above

Answers

A privilege covers are given below: All of the above. The correct option is D

A privilege is a benefit right or advantage given to a particular person or group of people. It refers to the entitlement to use certain benefits, advantages or facilities that others do not have access to.

A privilege can be granted to individuals, organizations, or groups to access certain facilities or services. These privileges can include face-to-face conversations, telephone calls, messages sent by fax, email or any other medium, depending on the specific privileges granted to the person or group.

A privilege covers all of the above communication methods, and they are granted based on the type of privilege given. For example, a privilege to communicate with a person face-to-face would cover face-to-face conversations, while a privilege to communicate via phone would cover telephone calls.

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Complete question:

a privilege covers: group of answer choices:

A. face-to-face conversations.

B. telephone calls.

C. messages sent by fax.

D. all of the above

people with a high level of achievement motivation: group of answer choices expend their greatest efforts when faced with very easy tasks. tend to work best in groups, as they lack the ability to work independently. tend to explain their success as being due to external factors or luck. have the capacity to delay gratification in order to achieve their goals.

Answers

People with a high level of achievement motivation have the capacity to delay gratification in order to achieve their goals (option D).

The level of achievement motivation is a characteristic of an individual's personality. A person's level of motivation to achieve success and his or her willingness to work hard and be productive are determined by this factor. People who are highly motivated to achieve are often more successful in their careers, relationships, and personal lives than those who are less motivated.

People with a high level of achievement motivation have the capacity to delay gratification in order to achieve their goals. They are willing to work hard and make sacrifices in order to achieve their objectives. They are also willing to put in the extra effort required to achieve success in their lives.

Option D is the correct answer.

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historically, which of the following were exceptions to the clergy-penitent privilege? group of answer choices acts that violated the doctrines of the denomination involved physical injury to members of the immediate family incest and child abuse historically there were no exceptions to this privilege

Answers

Historically, the exceptions to the clergy-penitent privilege was c. incest and child abuse

When administering religious rituals like absolution or confession, a clergyperson's conversations with a member of their community were historically safeguarded by the clergy-penitent privilege. This right has, however, occasionally been overturned, most notably in situations involving child abuse and incest. Courts then decided that privilege does not apply in such circumstances, and clergy members may be compelled to notify the authorities of the abuse.

In situations where there is a risk of damage to others, such as when someone admits to plotting a violent crime, the clergy-penitent exemption may also not apply. Additionally, some states have restricted the use of the privilege by requiring clergy members to notify law enforcement or child safety services of any suspicions of child abuse or negligence, regardless of how the information was discovered.

Complete Question:

Historically, which of the following were exceptions to the clergy-penitent privilege?

a. acts that violated the doctrines of the denomination

b. involved physical injury to members of the immediate family

c. incest and child abuse

d. historically there were no exceptions to this privilege

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a study suggesting a link between the measles, mumps, rubella (mmr) vaccine and autism led to reduced vaccination rates and increased rates of measles. this example demonstrates the serious implications of group of answer choices failing the principle of justice. legal protection of lab animals. data falsification/fabrication. using deception.

Answers

The example given does not demonstrate a failure of the principle of justice, legal protection of lab animals, data falsification/fabrication, or the use of deception.

Instead, it highlights the importance of accurate and responsible communication of scientific findings. The study suggesting a link between the MMR vaccine and autism has been widely discredited and debunked by subsequent research, but the initial publication of the study and subsequent media coverage caused many parents to become fearful of vaccinating their children. This fear led to reduced vaccination rates, which in turn led to increased rates of measles and other preventable diseases. This demonstrates the serious implications of failing to communicate scientific findings in a responsible and accurate manner, and the need for responsible journalism and public education in scientific matters.

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vedic worship primarily involved group of answer choices silent meditation. fasting for a month, beginning at the new moon. offerings to nature gods at fire altars. solemn circular dances.

Answers

Vedic worship primarily involved offerings to nature gods at fire altars.

In this case option C is correct

Between 1500 and 500 BCE, Hindu scriptures known as the Vedas were written in India. These texts provide a wealth of knowledge about Hindu religious rituals and practices, including different types of worship.

The sacrificing to various nature gods at fire altars was one of the most significant aspects of Vedic worship. Priests offered these sacrifices, which were meant to please the gods and ensure the community's welfare and prosperity.

As part of the sacrifices, grain, ghee (clarified butter), and animal products were burned while hymns and prayers were chanted. The smoke was thought to carry the spirits of the gods, and the fire was revered as a sacred conduit between the gods and humans.

In this case option C is correct

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the most common form of abuse is: group of answer choices abuse between siblings abuse between spouses abuse between a father and his children abuse between a mother and her children

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The most common form of abuse is abuse between spouses also referred to as close partner violence.

Depending on the group being researched and the definition of abuse being used, different types of abuse are more prevalent.

The most frequent type of abuse, however also referred to as close partner violence is usually thought to be aggression between partners. Both heterosexual and same-sex relationships are capable of experiencing this kind of abuse, which includes physical, sexual, and mental aggression.

Intimate partner abuse is thought to affect 1 in 3 women and 1 in 4 males at some point in their lives. It is significant to note that all forms of abuse, regardless of the kind or nature of the abuser-victim connection, are grave issues that require attention.

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while texas governors can make appointments to many positions, they cannot remove many appointees once they are in office. why is this?

Answers

Texas governors can make appointments to many positions, they cannot remove many appointees once they are in office because the state constitution prohibits governors from removing appointees who were appointed by a previous governor and other such reasons.

Due to the fact that the state constitution prohibits governors from removing appointees who were appointed by a previous governor and because the governor might not be able to secure the two-thirds majority of the legislature required to make the appointment.

Due to the division of powers among the six other executives, the Texas Governor is viewed as being weak. The governor's appointment authority is subject to restrictions. The terms of a governor's appointees are six years, and new governors are not permitted to remove a previous administration's appointees.

The Governor will appoint people for about 1,500 positions over a four-year period.

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In California, ________ are striking for better pay.
A
teachers

B
railroad workers

C
flight attendants

D
farm workers

Answers

A teachers are striking for better pay

Answer: A

Explanation:

In california the teachers don't get paid fairly

After Shays’s Rebellion, Americans admitted that the Articles of Confederation failed to A. create limited governments. B. be an effective government and protect the people’s rights C. expand suffrage to include women. D. preserve the rights laid out in the Magna Carta.

Answers

After Shays's Rebellion, Americans admitted that the Articles of Confederation failed to B) be an effective government and protect the people's rights.

The American Revolution was fought in 1775, and it resulted in the defeat of British forces and the establishment of a new nation in 1783. The new nation's leaders chose to create a weak federal government to prevent tyranny and overreach. The Articles of Confederation became the nation's first written constitution, but it had several flaws that were exposed during Shays's Rebellion.

The Articles of Confederation established a confederation, which is a loose association of states that share power, rather than a federal government with a central authority. This government was severely limited and weak. It was unable to solve the nation's economic problems or protect its citizens from rebellion or insurrection.

When Shays's Rebellion occurred in Massachusetts in 1786, the government's inability to protect its citizens was exposed. Daniel Shays and other farmers were angry about high taxes and demanded that the government provide them with relief. They tried to take over the courthouse in Springfield, but they were eventually dispersed by a militia.

Shays's Rebellion exposed the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation, and it resulted in a push for a stronger federal government. In 1787, delegates met in Philadelphia to create a new constitution, and they eventually produced the United States Constitution, which created a federal government with a strong central authority, which is still in effect today.

In conclusion, after Shays's Rebellion, Americans admitted that the Articles of Confederation failed to be an effective government and protect the people's rights. The rebellion highlighted the need for a strong federal government to protect its citizens and address economic issues. This led to the creation of the United States Constitution, which established a federal government with a strong central authority.

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When grape workers refused to work as a protest, this was a __________(1 point)
Responses


boycott.
wage.
strike.
march.

Answers

Answer: Strike

Explanation:

Answer:

Strike

Explanation:

The definition of a strike is "a refusal to work organized by a body of employees as a form of protest."

The grape workers were refusing to work as a protest, therefore it was a strike.

psychologist elizabeth loftus had participants in one study watch a film about an auto accident, write a description of the accident, and then answer a series of questions, which were different for different groups of participants. a week later, the participants were questioned again. what was one basic finding of the study?

Answers

One basic finding of Elizabeth Loftus's study was that the language used in the questions asked of participants could influence their memory of the event.

Specifically, participants were more likely to recall details suggested by the wording of the question, even if those details were not actually present in the original film.

For example, participants who were asked "How fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other?" were more likely to recall a higher speed than participants who were asked "How fast were the cars going when they hit each other?" In reality, the film did not show any cars "smashing" into each other, but participants who were asked the "smashed" question were more likely to report having seen broken glass, even though there was none in the film.

This phenomenon is known as the "misinformation effect" and has important implications for the reliability of eyewitness testimony in legal cases. It suggests that the way questions are asked and information is presented to witnesses can impact their recollection of events, which can in turn affect the accuracy of their testimony.

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dr. leising conducts observational studies of adolescents interacting with peers during problem-solving tasks. she records each 30-minute interaction and then has the students in her laboratory code prosocial behaviors in the adolescents as they view each video. because she has several students coding the videos, she calculates how reliable their scores are with each other by having them all code the same videos periodically. which type of reliability is dr. leising calculating? group of answer choices internal reliability test-retest reliability interrater reliability internal consistency

Answers

Dr. leising conducts observational studies of adolescents interacting with peers during problem-solving tasks is Interrater reliability therefore the correct option is A.

Interrater reliability is a measure of agreement among two or more raters in terms of their assessment of a given set of items. It is a measure of consistency between two or more people’s ratings or evaluations, and it can take many forms, such as inter-rater agreement (the extent to which different observers independently rate the same target in the same way)

and inter-rater correlation (the degree to which different observers rate different targets similarly). It is important for research purposes, because without reliable ratings from multiple sources, it would be difficult to make accurate inferences about a phenomenon being studied.

Hence the correct option is A.

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which of the following statements is true of the popularity of cremation? multiple choice cremation is usually more popular in the united states than in canada. cremation is least popular in asian countries. cremation is more popular in the pacific region of the united states than in the south. the percentage of cremations in the united sates has decreased since 1985.

Answers

Cremation is more popular in the Pacific region of the United States than in the South is true of the popularity of cremation. Option C is correct answer.

The process of cremation involves applying high heat to the body parts of the deceased to reduce them to ash. One deceased person is cremated in a specially constructed cremation chamber for a period of around two hours, during which time they are subjected to extreme heat. Option C is correct answer.

Little bits of bone will remain after the cremation process is complete; they are removed from the cremator, cooled, and put in a machine that turns the bone into ashes. In a container, these are the ashes that are placed. The family has the option of receiving the cremated remains after the cremation. Option C is correct answer.

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the means of dividing roadways and separating lanes in opposite directions is usually a guardrail or a

Answers

The method for dividing roadways and isolating paths in inverse headings is normally a guardrail or a median. option (A) is correct.

The median strip, focal reservation, street middle, or traffic middle is the held region that isolates restricting paths of traffic on partitioned streets like separated expressways, double carriageways, interstates, and motorways. To give an advance notice to remain conscious while driving/keep vehicles from crossing median.

Expressway lane markings are of an alternate plan and importance as on different streets. Stopping or halting on interstates isn't allowed except if it is on the shoulder of the freeway. A middle strip is a region that isolates vehicles going in opposite directions.

Therefore, option (A) is correct.

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This question is not complete, Here I am attaching the complete question:

The means of dividing roadways and separating lanes in opposite directions is usually a guardrail or a _______.

(A) median

(B) vehicles

(C) Highway

(D) scenario

during non-rem sleep group of answer choices body temperature and energy use drop. heart rate increases. digestive processes come to a halt. vivid dreams occur.

Answers

During non-REM sleep, body temperature and energy use drop, and heart rate decreases. Option (1,2)

During non-REM sleep, which constitutes about 75% of the sleep cycle, the body temperature and energy use drop, heart rate and breathing slow down, and the brain produces slow, synchronized waves. It is during non-REM sleep that the body repairs and regenerates tissues, builds bone and muscle, and strengthens the immune system.

This stage of sleep is also important for consolidating memories and processing emotions. Unlike in REM sleep, where vivid dreams occur, non-REM sleep is characterized by shorter, less intense dreams that are often more realistic. Disruptions in non-REM sleep can lead to daytime sleepiness, impaired memory consolidation, and mood disturbances.

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Full Question: during non-rem sleep group of answer choices

body temperature and energy use drop. heart rate increases. digestive processes come to a halt. vivid dreams occur.

monsena is an independent and adventurous child who likes to explore new places in her environment. however, her mother is overprotective and forbids monsena from going to the backyard or garden in their house. developmental psychologists would say that a discussion of this discrepancy concerns:

Answers

A discussion of the discrepancy between Monsena's independent and adventurous personality and her mother's overprotective behavior would concern:

The development of autonomy versus shame and doubt in early childhood.

The second stage of Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory of development, which covers the age range of one to three years, is autonomy versus shame and doubt. Children start to assert their independence at this stage by exploring their surroundings and taking charge of their own decisions. Children may experience shame and self-doubt if caregivers are overly critical or restrictive, which can impede their ability to develop autonomy.

In the hypothetical situation, Monsena's mother's overprotective behavior is likely to prevent Monsena from exploring her surroundings, which may cause her to feel ashamed and doubt her capacity to discover and make decisions. This might impede Monsena's ability to become autonomous and harm her confidence and self-esteem. Consequently, an examination of this

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a gruo of children on one hospital unit are all suffering separation anxiety. which child is experiencing the despair stage of separation anxiety

Answers

According to Bowlby's theory of attachment, there are three stages of separation anxiety: protest, despair, and detachment.

The child who is experiencing the despair stage of separation anxiety is the one who has moved beyond the initial stage of protest and is now experiencing feelings of hopelessness and sadness.

During this stage, the child may become withdrawn, unresponsive, and uninterested in engaging with others. The child may also experience physical symptoms such as loss of appetite, disturbed sleep, and lethargy.

It is difficult to determine which child in the group is experiencing the despair stage of separation anxiety without more information or observation of their behaviors and emotions.

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willie is a member of a charitable organization. which of the following, if true, would increase the likeliness of willie experiencing groupthink? a. willie is an individual capable of making excellent decisions. b. the charitable organization is a cohesive group. c. willie experiences weak social identity toward the group. d. the organizations' leader creates negative group feelings.

Answers

The group's high degree of cohesion, and the members are more likely to accept group norms or decisions, even if they might not be optimal or rational, to maintain group harmony and social identity. Thus, option b is the correct answer.

What's Groupthink

Groupthink is a term used to refer to a situation in which a group of people makes decisions or takes actions that are in line with the group's view or preference but might not be the most rational or optimal decision.

Groupthink is a negative phenomenon as it may lead to biased decision-making, overlooking critical information or risks and may lead to poor performance or outcomes.

In this case, Willie being a member of a charitable organization and if the organization is a cohesive group, then it increases the likelihood of Willie experiencing groupthink.

This is because of the group's high degree of cohesion, and the members are more likely to accept group norms or decisions, even if they might not be optimal or rational, to maintain group harmony and social identity. Thus, option b is the correct answer.

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dr. andros is a history professor studying cultural stereotypes. he decides to sample the freshmen students who study in the library at his university. this is an example of:

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Dr. Andros' decision to sample only freshmen students who study in the library at his university may result in a biased sample, as it is likely to exclude students who do not fit that description. This type of sampling bias is called a selection bias.

When a sample is not representative of the community it is supposed to represent, it is said to be biassed. This is generally due to systematic exclusion or over-representation of certain groups.

Dr. Andros' sample may not be representative of the general population of university students in this instance, as it only includes freshmen students who study in the library.

A representative sample is required to draw accurate conclusions and make valid generalizations about a community.

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a social history is . group of answer choices a poor fit for empowerment-based practice an assessment process that organizes information about client functioning unnecessary in strength-oriented social work practice an inappropriate assessment instrument for older adults

Answers

Unnecessary in strength-oriented social work practice. A social history is unnecessary in strength-oriented social work practice.

Strength-oriented social work practice is a client-centered approach to social work that focuses on the strengths and capabilities of the client rather than their weaknesses or deficits. This approach emphasizes the importance of building a positive relationship between the client and the social worker, and empowering the client to take an active role in their own care and decision-making. In contrast, a social history is an assessment process that organizes information about client functioning, including demographic information, family history, educational and work history, and any significant life events or traumas that may impact their current functioning.

In summary, while a social history can be helpful in some cases, it is not necessary in strength-oriented social work practice, which prioritizes the client's strengths and abilities rather than their past challenges or traumas.

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a person often experiences unanticipated episodes of intense fear. during these episodes, they feel like they are going to faint and have trouble catching their breath. this person cannot identify the source of their feelings and worries that they might die of heart failure. in the context of psychological disorders, this person exhibits the symptoms of paranoid personality disorder. disruptive mood regulation disorder. social anxiety disorder. panic disorder.

Answers

The symptoms suggest panic disorder, a type of anxiety disorder characterized by unexpected panic attacks with intense fear and physical symptoms. Paranoid personality, disruptive mood regulation, and social anxiety disorders do not fit.

The symptoms mentioned indicate that the individual is suffering from panic attacks, which are a defining feature of panic disorder. Panic disorder is a form of anxiety condition characterised by sudden and recurring panic episodes that cause extreme dread and bodily signs such as shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, and dizziness.

The individual may be concerned about having a heart attack or losing control, and the attacks can have a significant effect on their everyday living. Panic attacks are not usually a central characteristic of paranoid personality disorder, disruptive mood regulation disorder, or social anxiety disorder.

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you find your instructor grading papers, eating a burger, and preparing slides all at the same time. based on the study of dramaturgy, this likely happening in the:

Answers

Based on the study of dramaturgy, which is a sociological perspective that views social interactions as performances, the situation you describe could be considered an example of impression management.

People who practise impression management meticulously control their behavior, appearance, and other aspects of their presentation in an effort to influence the perceptions that others have of them.

In order to appear effective, capable, and in control, your teacher may be trying to manage various aspects of their presentation at once, such as grading papers, eating a burger, and creating slides.

Dramaturgy holds that in order to make the desired impact on the audience during social interactions, a variety of roles, scripts, and props are used.

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anna has given birth to a baby girl. even one month after delivery, she is experiencing very strong feelings of sadness and anxiety. she is so morose that she is having trouble coping with daily tasks. anna is most likely suffering from:

Answers

From the said symptoms that Anna is facing about her after pregnancy period, Anna is most likely suffering from postpartum depression.

Postpartum depression (PPD), also known as postpartum depression, is a type of childbirth-related mood disorder that affects both men and women. Symptoms include extreme sadness, lack of energy, anxiety, crying episodes, irritability, and changes in sleep and eating patterns. It usually develops between one week and one month after birth. PPD can also harm newborns.

Though the precise cause of PPD is unclear, it is thought to be a result of a confluence of social, hormonal, genetic, and physical variables. These might include things like endocrine shifts and sleep deprivation. Bipolar disease, a history of melancholy in the family, psychological stress, complications during childbirth, a lack of social support, and drug abuse disorders are all risk factors. A person's signs are used to make the diagnosis.

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your younger brother's best friend is a huge risk-taker. even though he is 15 years old, he has already exhibited some very dangerous behaviors. one of his favorite activities is to sit in an open car window while the car is moving at a high rate of speed. what concept helps to explain this risky behavior?

Answers

The concept of The personal fable helps to explain the risky behavior of your younger brother's best friend who is a huge risk-taker even though he is 15 years old, he has already exhibited some very dangerous behaviors.

Many younger have a personal fable, which is the idea that they are special and different from everyone else so that no matter what they do, nothing bad will ever happen to them. Teenagers frequently make the following statements, which are examples of personal fable: "No one comprehends me," What do my parents know about what it's like to be a teenager? "My parents just don't understand what I'm going through." Together with the fictitious audience, it can be found in Piagetian theory's formal operational stage. Invulnerability feelings are also frequent. David Elkind, a psychologist, originally used the term "personal story" in his 1967 book Egocentrism in Adolescence.

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which term describes the visual cue that indicates an interactive shell is waiting for the user to type a command?

Answers

When an interactive shell is waiting for the user to type a command, it displays a prompt as a visual cue to indicate that it is ready to receive input.

The term that describes the visual cue that indicates an interactive shell is waiting for the user to type a command is called the "prompt".

In computing, a prompt is a symbol or message displayed by a command-line interface, indicating that the system is ready to receive input from the user. The prompt typically includes information about the current directory or location in the file system, as well as other relevant information such as the username, hostname, or time.

In many command-line interfaces, the prompt is customizable, allowing users to choose the format and style that works best for them. The prompt may also change based on the context or mode of operation, such as when running as a superuser or in a debugging mode.

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caroline selects a puzzle for her son that is slightly too difficult for him to put together alone and adjusts the support she offers to fit his current level of performance. caroline is engaging in .

Answers

Caroline is engaging in the educational concept of scaffolding, which involves providing temporary support and guidance to help a learner reach a level of understanding or skill that they would not be able to achieve on their own.

By selecting a puzzle that is slightly too difficult for her son, Caroline is challenging him to stretch beyond his current abilities. However, she is also adjusting the support she offers to fit his current level of performance, which allows him to gradually build the skills and understanding he needs to succeed.

As her son becomes more competent, Caroline can gradually reduce the amount of support she provides, until he is able to complete the puzzle independently. Scaffolding is an effective approach to teaching and learning, as it allows learners to gradually develop their abilities, building on what they already know and can do.

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frieda is organized, careful, and disciplined. she would likely score very high on a personality test that measures:

Answers

Frieda's personality traits suggest that she would score very high on a personality test that measures conscientiousness.

Frieda's personality traits of being organized, careful, and disciplined suggest that she has a high level of conscientiousness. Therefore, she would likely score very high on a personality test that measures this trait.

Conscientiousness is one of the "Big Five" personality traits, which are the five broad dimensions of personality that are commonly used in personality psychology. Conscientiousness refers to the degree to which a person is responsible, dependable, and self-disciplined.

People who score high in conscientiousness tend to be well-organized, reliable, and focused on achieving their goals.

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according to thomas wentworth higginson, art and science a. should be pursued for their intrinsic worth. b. must be controlled by individuals, not the government. c. had value only if they offered practical improvement for humanity. d. could not be allowed to undermine revealed truth according to the scriptures.

Answers

According to thomas wentworth higginson, art and science option . d. could not be allowed to undermine revealed truth according to the scriptures.

About Thomas Wentworth Higginson, he is known for his role as commander of black troops during the Civil War, his active participation in the abolitionist movement, his affiliation with the Transcendentalists, his role as officiator at the radical wedding of Lucy Stone and Henry Blackwell, and his work as an inventor and editor of Emily Dickinson's poem.

These are the things for which he is most well-known. Less notable is her deep rooted safeguard of ladies' freedoms.Because of his extraordinary spiritual awareness, Thomas Wentworth Higginson devoted the majority of his remaining life to fighting for the liberated, women, and disenfranchised's rights. The correct option is D.

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officers who participate in violations of law and departmental policy for personal gain are guilty of:

Answers

Officers who participate in violations of law and departmental policy for personal gain are guilty of corruption.

A person or group in a position of authority may engage in corruption, which is a kind of dishonesty or a criminal offence, in order to obtain improper benefits or exploit that position for one's own benefit. Bribery, influence peddling, and embezzlement are just a few of the behaviours that corruption may encompass. It may also involve actions that are permitted in many nations. Political corruption is when a public official or other staff member uses their position for personal gain. Kleptocracies, oligarchies, narco-states, and mafia regimes are the ones where corruption is most prevalent.

On a global scale, corruption and crime are sociological endemics that occur often in almost every country to varied degrees and quantities.

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