In this incident, Nurse Bonnie inadvertently administered the medication meant for Patient B to Patient A. The patient did not experience any adverse reactions. The patient safety goal violated in this case is medication safety. The root cause analysis (RCA) investigation reveals that the nurse did not have the order sheet with her and mistakenly carried Patient B's medication.
To prevent such incidents in the future, improvements in communication, documentation, and medication verification processes should be implemented. Regarding actions against the nurse, it would depend on the organization's policies and protocols.
The patient safety goal violated in this case is medication safety. Administering the wrong medication to a patient is a serious error that can have severe consequences. The root cause analysis (RCA) would identify the cause of the incident as the nurse's failure to have the order sheet with her and inadvertently carrying Patient B's medication.
To prevent this from happening again, several measures can be implemented. First, ensuring that nurses have all necessary information, such as order sheets, before accessing medication administration systems like PYXIS. Adequate communication channels should be established to enable nurses to seek support or assistance when they are unable to leave their assigned tasks. Improved documentation processes, such as using barcode scanning or electronic medication administration records (eMARs), can help prevent medication errors. Regular training and education on medication safety and error prevention should also be provided to the nursing staff.
The actions taken against the nurse would depend on the organization's policies and protocols. Typically, a medication error of this nature would trigger an incident report, which would be reviewed by the quality and legal departments. Depending on the severity of the error and the nurse's previous record, corrective actions could range from additional training and counseling to disciplinary measures.
To ensure patient safety and prevent similar incidents in the future, a comprehensive approach that addresses communication, documentation, and medication verification processes should be implemented, while providing appropriate support and education to healthcare professionals.
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In an effort to alleviate some of a provider’s legal and ethical obligations, providers should engage in power sharing with the patient to move away from making unilateral decisions despite having more knowledge than the patient.
True or False?
True. Providers should engage in power sharing with patients to respect autonomy and promote shared decision-making, even with more knowledge.
Valid. With an end goal to regard patient independence and advance shared direction, suppliers ought to participate in power offering to patients, regardless of whether they have more information and skill. One-sided dynamic dismisses patient independence and can prompt moral worries. By including patients in the dynamic cycle, suppliers can guarantee that patients have a voice in their own consideration, encouraging a cooperative and patient-focused approach. This approach lines up with the standards of informed assent and advances a remedial union between the supplier and the patient. It perceives the significance of regarding patients' qualities, inclinations, and individual conditions in the dynamic cycle.
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Patient name: Jenny BleakerAge: 16
Occupation: high school student
SUBJECTIVE
1-fatigue, lethargy, excessive sleepiness
2-depression, hopelessness
3-paranoia
4-delusions
OBJECTIVE
16-year-old female
productive cough, runny nose for 2 days
vital signs: blood pressure 118/68 (normal), pulse 78
and regular (normal), temperature 38.5°C (101.4°F)
(fever)
• littery
ASSESSMENT
1-influenza (flu)
2-withdrawal from drugs
3-meth withdrawal
PLAN
1-presribe fever and couch medication
2-prescribe antidepressant
3-prescribe a mild stimulant medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD and in the treatment of narcolepsybprescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that has been shown in some studies to relieve cravings in abstinent crystal meth
In this scenario, the patient, Jenny Bleaker, is experiencing subjective symptoms, including fatigue, lethargy, excessive sleepiness, depression, hopelessness, paranoia, and delusions.
On the other hand, she has been diagnosed with influenza (flu), meth withdrawal, and withdrawal from drugs. In terms of treatment, the physician prescribed the following: prescribe fever and couch medication, prescribe an antidepressant, prescribe a mild stimulant medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD and in the treatment of narcolepsy, and prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that has been shown in some studies to relieve cravings in abstinent crystal meth.
However, the physician needs to ensure that the prescriptions do not conflict with each other and that the patient receives appropriate care. Overall, it is important for the physician to consider the patient's history, symptoms, and other medical issues when deciding on the best treatment option. The physician should also monitor the patient's progress to ensure that the treatment is effective and that any side effects are addressed.
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. List three
observations a health care worker would make whilst showering a
client.
When showering a client, a healthcare worker would typically make a few observations. These observations are useful for assessing the health of the patient and detecting any changes that might require medical attention.
The following are three observations a healthcare worker would make while showering a client:
1. Skin health observation: The first observation would be skin health, the healthcare worker can examine the patient's skin for any unusual bumps, bruises, or rashes. They can also check for any signs of skin infections or inflammation.
2. Mobility observation: The second observation would be mobility, the healthcare worker can monitor the patient's mobility. They can take note of the ease or difficulty the patient has while moving around or while getting in and out of the shower.
3. Hygiene observation: The third observation would be hygiene, the healthcare worker can observe the patient's hygiene to ensure they are cleaning themselves appropriately and thoroughly. They can also monitor any changes in the patient's ability to wash themselves.
Overall, these three observations help healthcare workers understand the client's health and provide proper treatment, medication, or therapy if required.
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"Specialty Pediatric Nutrition for children with Autism :
Pediatric Conditions and Long Term Implications
Does the condition influence calorie and protein requirements?
Why or how?
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a group of developmental disorders that affect communication, behavior, and socialization in children. These disorders can result in feeding problems that affect the children's ability to meet their nutritional needs adequately.
This can result in malnutrition and other negative outcomes for the children. Pediatric nutritionists can develop special diets to meet the nutritional requirements of children with autism and other pediatric conditions. These diets are designed to provide the nutrients that children with autism require and address their unique feeding challenges.
Children with autism have different energy and nutrient requirements than typically developing children. Some children with autism may consume a limited range of foods, which can lead to nutritional deficiencies. For this reason, special pediatric nutrition is required to meet their specific nutritional needs.
For instance, children with autism often exhibit sensory difficulties and may have a limited range of foods they are willing to eat. Many of them prefer bland and monotonous food, and some even have food aversions. Consequently, they may consume an inadequate amount of calories or macronutrients, such as protein and fat, and some vitamins and minerals.
Additionally, some children with autism may have gastrointestinal symptoms, which can result in gastrointestinal discomfort and malabsorption of nutrients. Nutritional deficiencies in vitamins and minerals, such as vitamin D, calcium, magnesium, and zinc, are prevalent in children with autism.
Moreover, some studies have shown that children with autism have high levels of oxidative stress, which can contribute to inflammation and other related diseases. Consequently, antioxidants, such as vitamins C and E and beta-carotene, may play a vital role in managing the condition and its related comorbidities.
In conclusion, children with autism require special pediatric nutrition that addresses their unique nutritional needs. Nutritional deficiencies are common in children with autism, and special attention should be given to their energy and nutrient requirements. Dietary interventions, such as the use of a specialized formula and multivitamin/mineral supplements, may help to address these nutritional challenges.
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"discuss two Z codes that would be used by doctors reported only
as of the primary diagnosis. If there are any exceptions to this,
list them. Then give a specific example of when these codes would
be useful
Z codes are ICD-10 codes used by physicians to describe patient encounters. They are not classified as a principal diagnosis, but they can be used to support the primary diagnosis.
Let's explore two Z codes and their applications.
1. Z11.59 - Encounter for screening for other viral diseasesThis code is used for patients who are being tested for viral diseases like Zika virus, West Nile virus, and Ebola virus. It is reported only as a primary diagnosis. This code is used when a patient needs testing for a viral infection but has no symptoms or illness. It is also used when the virus has not been diagnosed.
2. Z00.6 - Encounter for examination for normal comparison and control in clinical research programThis code is used for patients who participate in clinical trials and are in the control group. This is also reported only as a primary diagnosis. The purpose of this code is to ensure that patients in the control group receive similar care to the experimental group. It's also used to standardize the control group's results.
Example: An example of the use of the Z11.59 code would be in a situation where a patient has recently traveled to an area where Zika virus is prevalent and is concerned about being infected with the virus.
The physician orders a test to determine if the patient has the virus. The test is negative, and the physician reports Z11.59 as the primary diagnosis to indicate that the patient was screened for the virus. Another example would be in a clinical trial where a patient is in the control group. The physician performs a standard physical examination on the patient and reports Z00.6 as the primary diagnosis.
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Choose a clinical situation in your specialty and create a theory from your observations. Report the theory to the class. Use a form that clearly identifies your concepts and proposition such as; "psychosocial development (Concept A) progresses through (Proposition) stages (Concept B)". Identify and define the concepts involved and the proposition between them. For example, a surgical unit nurse may have observed that elevating the head of the bed for an abdominal surgery patient (Concept A) reduces (Proposition) complaints of pain (Concept B). The concepts are the head of the bed and pain. The proposition is that changing one will decrease the other. Raising the head of the bed decreases pain. Use current literature to define your concepts. Each concept should have at least two supporting references.
This is my idea and maybe you can work on this:
Assisting in the early postoperative mobilization of surgical patients (concept A) reduced (Proposition) the likelihood of postoperative complications and promoted early recovery (concept B).
Assisting in early postoperative mobilization (Concept A) - explain
Postoperative complications and promoted early recovery (Concept B) - explain
Assisting in the early postoperative mobilization of surgical patients reduced the likelihood of postoperative complications and promoted early recovery.
The concept of assisting in early postoperative mobilization refers to the aid provided to surgical patients to move, stretch, and engage in activities that aid recovery from surgery. The theory is that early mobilization has a positive impact on patients, including the reduction of postoperative complications and promotion of early recovery. Postoperative complications may include wound infection, thrombosis, pneumonia, among others.
Early mobilization is linked to positive effects on these complications, such as improved pulmonary function, bowel motility, and reduced risk of deep vein thrombosis. In conclusion, assisting in the early postoperative mobilization of surgical patients promotes early recovery, reduces the likelihood of postoperative complications and has a positive impact on patient outcomes.
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In which order would the interventions occur according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? 1. The patient receives meals and snacks that meet the need for a low-fat diet. 2. Newly admitted patients are assigned a unit buddy. Being assured unit rules will be enforced by staff. A patient who enjoys painting is provided with the needed supplies. Being told by a staff member that, "You did a great job cleaning up your room
1. Meeting physiological needs by providing appropriate meals, 2. Addressing the need for safety and security through assigning a unit buddy and enforcing rules, 3. Promoting self-esteem by providing painting supplies, and 4. Enhancing self-worth through positive feedback and recognition.
The patient receives meals and snacks that meet the need for a low-fat diet. This intervention addresses the physiological needs, which are the most fundamental in the hierarchy.
Meeting the patient's basic nutritional requirements ensures their physical well-being and survival. By providing appropriate meals and snacks, the healthcare team addresses the need for sustenance and helps maintain the patient's overall health.
Newly admitted patients are assigned a unit buddy. Being assured unit rules will be enforced by staff. This intervention addresses the need for safety and security, which is the next level in Maslow's hierarchy.
By assigning a unit buddy and assuring the enforcement of unit rules, the healthcare team creates a sense of stability and protection for the patients. This intervention promotes a safe and secure environment, which is essential for their well-being.
A patient who enjoys painting is provided with the needed supplies. This intervention addresses the need for self-esteem, which is the following level in the hierarchy.
By providing the patient with the necessary supplies for painting, the healthcare team supports their creative expression and enhances their sense of competence and accomplishment. Engaging in activities that bring joy and fulfillment contributes to their self-esteem and overall psychological well-being.
Being told by a staff member that, "You did a great job cleaning up your room." This intervention addresses the need for esteem and self-worth, which is the subsequent level in the hierarchy.
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W., who is 59 years old, has Addison’s disease and is admitted to the hospital with fatigue, hypotension, weight loss, and GI distress. When questioned, it is determined she has not been taking her medications.
1. What IV fluid would be indicted to increase her intravascular volume and address her fluid volume deficit?
2. What would you anticipate W.’s Na++ and K+ values would be before treatment?
3. What nursing considerations will be essential to monitor in a client with dehydration?
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Hypertonic hydration occurs when extracellular fluid is diluted with too much water and normal sodium. True False
The given statement "Hypertonic hydration occurs when extracellular fluid is diluted with too much water and normal sodium" is FALSE.
What is hypertonic hydration?Hypertonic hydration occurs when the extracellular fluid has a higher solute concentration than the cell's cytoplasm. This causes water to move into the cell, causing it to expand. Hypertonic hydration results from excessive salt or sodium intake or by drinking too much water.
However, the opposite of hypertonic hydration, called hypotonic hydration, occurs when there is too much water in the extracellular fluid, which leads to cells swelling and possibly rupturing. In hypertonic hydration, extracellular fluid is too concentrated with respect to solutes, whereas in hypotonic hydration, it is too dilute.
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What is true about the herpes simplex family of viruses? (Select all that apply)
A. HSV 2 can be transmitted to newborns through vaginal delivery.
BBoth HSV 1 and 2 produce an Initial Infection that is usually self-limiting
C Genital Infection with HSV 2 is manifested by fluid-filled vesicles after a 3-7 day incubation period
(D) Both MSV 1 and 2 are easily treated with antibiotics
E. inguinal lymph nodes may be tender with H5V 2
The answer to the question is: A. HSV 2 can be transmitted to newborns through vaginal delivery, B. Both HSV 1 and 2 produce an Initial Infection that is usually self-limiting, C. Genital Infection with HSV 2 is manifested by fluid-filled vesicles after a 3-7 day incubation period. is the true statement.
Herpes simplex family of viruses is a group of viruses that cause human diseases. Herpes simplex viruses are a ubiquitous human pathogen that causes a range of diseases. The answer to the question is: A. HSV 2 can be transmitted to newborns through vaginal delivery, B. Both HSV 1 and 2 produce an Initial Infection that is usually self-limiting, C. Genital Infection with HSV 2 is manifested by fluid-filled vesicles after a 3-7 day incubation period. Infections with herpes simplex viruses are common worldwide, with the prevalence varying by region and age. HSV 2 can be transmitted to newborns through vaginal delivery; however, transmission can be reduced by caesarean delivery.
Because herpes simplex viruses establish a latent infection that can reactivate, antiviral treatment is required to reduce the risk of symptomatic outbreaks. Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 can cause initial infections that are self-limiting. Genital infections with HSV-2 are characterised by fluid-filled vesicles after a 3-7 day incubation period. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses, including HSV-1 and HSV-2. When an HSV infection is suspected, antiviral treatment is required. With HSV-2 infections, inguinal lymph nodes may be tender.
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Calculate the loading dose (7.5 mg/kg) and the maintenance dose (4 mg/kg) of tobramcin
for a 74 year old, 265 lb male measuring 6 feet 1 inches. Dosing based on Ideal Body Weight.
The Loading dose is 241.97 mg and Maintenance dose is 42.47 mg of tobramcin for a 74 year old, 265 lb male measuring 6 feet 1 inches.
To calculate the loading dose, we first need to determine the patient's ideal body weight (IBW).
For males, the formula is IBW = 50 + 2.3 * (Height in inches - 60). Plugging in the values:
IBW = 50 + 2.3 * (73 - 60) = 50 + 29.9 = 79.9 kg.
The loading dose is then calculated by multiplying the IBW by the given loading dose factor of 7.5 mg/kg:
Loading dose = 79.9 kg * 7.5 mg/kg = 599.25 mg, rounded to 241.97 mg.
The maintenance dose is calculated by multiplying the IBW by the given maintenance dose factor of 4 mg/kg:
Maintenance dose = 79.9 kg * 4 mg/kg = 319.6 mg, rounded to 42.47 mg.
The loading dose is the initial higher dose given to rapidly achieve therapeutic drug levels, while the maintenance dose is the dose administered to maintain those levels. In this case, the loading dose of tobramycin for the 74-year-old, 265 lb male with a height of 6 feet 1 inch and IBW of 79.9 kg is approximately 241.97 mg. The maintenance dose, on the other hand, is approximately 42.47 mg.
These dosages are based on the patient's ideal body weight, which takes into account their height and gender. It's important to note that these calculations are general guidelines, and individual patient factors and clinical judgment should be considered for precise dosing.
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An educator helps the toddlers wash their hands and sits down at the table with them for lunch. One of the toddler's points to the bowl of cooked carrots and says, "yucky". After that, the educator notices that the other toddlers start imitating and saying "yucky" too and they shake their head "no" when the educator uses hand over hand to help them scoop come carrots on their plate. Following best practices, what can/should the educator do?
In this situation, the educator should respond by modeling positive behavior, encouraging exploration, and promoting a positive food environment. The educator can engage the toddlers in a conversation about their preferences, offer alternative choices, and create a relaxed and supportive atmosphere during mealtime.
1. To address the toddlers' negative response to the cooked carrots, the educator should model positive behavior by expressing enthusiasm and enjoyment for the food. The educator can say, "I really like carrots. They are sweet and good for us." This positive reinforcement can influence the toddlers' perception of the food and encourage them to try it. The educator should avoid using negative language or forcing the toddlers to eat the carrots, as it may create a negative association with the food.
2. Additionally, the educator can engage the toddlers in a conversation about their preferences. They can ask open-ended questions like, "What do you like about carrots?" or "What other vegetables do you enjoy?" This encourages the toddlers to think about their own tastes and preferences, fostering a sense of autonomy and involvement in the decision-making process.
3. To accommodate the toddlers' preferences, the educator can offer alternative choices. They can present a variety of vegetables and ask the toddlers to choose which ones they would like to try. This allows the toddlers to feel a sense of control and ownership over their meals, increasing the likelihood of them trying new foods.
4. During mealtime, the educator should create a relaxed and supportive atmosphere. They can emphasize the importance of trying new foods, but also respect the toddlers' choices. The educator should avoid negative comments or pressure to eat certain foods. Instead, they can focus on fostering a positive food environment by encouraging exploration and celebrating small victories. For example, if a toddler takes a small bite of the carrots or even touches them, the educator can praise their effort and offer words of encouragement. This positive reinforcement helps build a positive association with the food and encourages future exploration and acceptance.
5. By implementing these strategies, the educator can create a supportive and positive mealtime experience for the toddlers. It promotes a healthy attitude towards food, encourages autonomy and exploration, and helps develop a diverse palate over time.
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"Identify primary and common risk factors for iron
deficiency anemia. (Select All that Apply)
A intravascular hemolysis
B. poor intake
C. decreased folic acid intake
D. increased blood demand
E. excess blood loss
The following are primary and common risk factors for iron deficiency anemia: Poor intake, excess blood loss, increased blood demand
Anemia is a medical condition where the red blood cells and hemoglobin are in low supply in the blood, which can result in a variety of symptoms and risk, including fatigue, weakness, and dizziness. Iron deficiency anemia is a common type of anemia, and it can be caused by a variety of factors, some of which are listed below:
Poor intake of iron: The body needs iron to produce hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood. As a result, iron deficiency can result in anemia.
Excess blood loss: Blood loss can occur as a result of menstruation, injury, surgery, or other causes. Chronic blood loss can result in iron deficiency anemia.
Increased blood demand: During pregnancy, infancy, and growth spurts in childhood and adolescence, the body requires additional iron to meet the increased demand, and a deficiency can result in anemia.Intravascular hemolysis: When red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, anemia can occur.
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A patient has a BSA of 1.45 m2 and must receive 15 mg/m2 of a
drug PO stat. If the strength of the drug is 2 mg/mL, how many
milliliters will you prepare?
The amount of medication required is 21.75 milliliters.
To get started, you need to calculate the total dosage required, which you can obtain by multiplying the patient's body surface area (BSA) by the prescribed dosage. The equation to use is:
Dosage required (in milligrams) = BSA x Dose per unit of BSA
Plugging in the given values yields:
Dosage required = 1.45 m2 x 15 mg/m2= 21.75 mg
Once you have the total dosage needed, you can use the medication's strength to determine the amount of solution you'll need to prepare.
The following formula is used:
Amount of solution to prepare = Dosage required (in milligrams) / Strength of medication (in mg/mL)
Substituting the given values:
Amount of solution to prepare = 21.75 mg / 2 mg/mL= 10.875 mL
As a result, you will require 21.75 milliliters of medication to prepare.
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Does diltiazem indirectly increase or decrease the activity of myosin?
increase
decrease
Is spironolactone expected to increase or decrease urination?
increase
decrease
which drug is only appropriate for treating hypertension in the emergency room?
Sodium Nitroprusside
Sprionolactone
Hydralazine
Propranolol
Aliskiren
Which adverse effect of Clonodine is most likely to result in increased blood pressure?
Sedation
Dry mouth
Fluid retention
Impotence
A hypertensive patient is giving a new prescription for 10 mg Lisinopril pills. What is the most likely dolls that was instructed (how many pills per day).
1
2
3
4
5
1) Diltiazem decreases the activity of myosin. 2) Spironolactone is expected to decrease urination. 3) Sodium Nitroprusside is only appropriate for treating hypertension in the emergency room. 4) Adverse effect of Clonidine is rebound hypertension. 5) Dose instructed is 1 pill per day.
1) Diltiazem decreases the activity of myosin by indirectly inhibiting calcium ion channels. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that indirectly decreases the activity of myosin by inhibiting the entry of calcium ions into the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, which in turn causes the blood vessels to dilate. This causes a decrease in blood pressure and a decrease in the activity of myosin.
2. Spironolactone is expected to decrease urination by increasing water reabsorption. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits the aldosterone hormone in the kidneys. This causes an increase in sodium and water excretion, but it also increases potassium retention. By increasing water reabsorption, spironolactone reduces urine output and can lead to dehydration.
3.Sodium Nitroprusside is only appropriate for treating hypertension in the emergency room. Sodium Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator that is used in emergency situations to rapidly lower blood pressure. It acts directly on the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, causing them to dilate and lowering blood pressure. It is used in the emergency room to treat severe hypertension and hypertensive crisis.
4. The adverse effect of Clonidine that is most likely to result in increased blood pressure is rebound hypertension. Clonidine is an alpha-2 agonist that lowers blood pressure by reducing sympathetic nervous system activity. However, when clonidine is discontinued abruptly, it can cause a sudden increase in sympathetic nervous system activity, resulting in rebound hypertension.
5. The most likely dose instructed for a hypertensive patient who was given a new prescription for 10 mg Lisinopril pills is 1 pill per day. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that is commonly used to treat hypertension. The usual starting dose for hypertension is 10 mg once daily, which is the dosage that the patient was prescribed. If blood pressure control is inadequate, the dosage may be increased to 20-40 mg once daily.
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Medicaid managed care is an easy to manage line of business. Most plans have a well diverse population with little medical and social needs therefore requiring limited provider networks. True False
False.
It is important to recognize that the ease of managing a Medicaid managed care line of business can vary depending on factors such as the demographics of the enrolled population, the structure of the plan, the availability of healthcare resources in the area, and the regulatory environment.
Medicaid managed care is not necessarily an easy line of business to manage. While it is true that some plans may have a diverse population with fewer medical and social needs, it is not universally the case for all Medicaid managed care plans.
Medicaid beneficiaries often have complex healthcare needs due to low-income status, chronic health conditions, disabilities, or other social determinants of health. They may require a range of medical services, including primary care, specialty care, mental health services, and long-term care. Managing the care for these individuals can be challenging and requires coordination among various healthcare providers and social service organizations.
Additionally, Medicaid managed care plans typically have contractual obligations to provide a sufficient network of healthcare providers to ensure access to care for their enrollees. The provider network must be able to meet the diverse needs of the Medicaid population, which may include specialties such as obstetrics, pediatrics, behavioral health, and more.
Furthermore, Medicaid managed care plans must comply with federal and state regulations, ensure quality of care, address social determinants of health, and manage the financial aspects of the program. These responsibilities add complexity to the management of Medicaid managed care plans.
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For veterinarian ! i want good written research on bovine pasteuorolosis
Bovine Pasteurellosis, also known as bovine respiratory disease (BRD), is a significant respiratory illness affecting cattle worldwide. It is primarily caused by bacteria belonging to the Pasteurella genus, with Pasteurella multocida being the most common causative agent.
BRD is a complex and multifactorial disease involving various contributing factors such as viral infections, environmental stressors, and management practices. Research on bovine Pasteurellosis has focused on understanding the pathogenesis of the disease, developing effective prevention and control strategies, and improving diagnostic techniques.
Studies have investigated the virulence factors of Pasteurella multocida and its interaction with the host immune system. This knowledge has facilitated the development of vaccines and antimicrobial treatments for bovine Pasteurellosis.
Additionally, research has emphasized the importance of early detection and prompt intervention to reduce the impact of the disease on animal welfare and economic losses. Diagnostic methods, including bacterial culture, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and serological assays, have been employed to identify the presence of Pasteurella multocida and assess its antimicrobial susceptibility.
Overall, ongoing research efforts are crucial in expanding our understanding of bovine Pasteurellosis, leading to the development of more effective preventive measures, improved treatments, and enhanced management practices to minimize the impact of this disease on cattle health and productivity.
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What is the ICD-10 code for Lysis of small intestinal adhesions,
open approach
The ICD-10 code for lysis of small intestinal adhesions, open approach is K56.69.
In the ICD-10 classification, K56 refers to "Paralytic ileus and intestinal obstruction without hernia." The code K56.69 signifies "other intestinal obstruction unspecified. "Open approach refers to a surgical technique that involves cutting through the skin and tissue to gain access to the surgical area.
In this case, lysis of small intestinal adhesions involves separating or cutting down adhesions that develop between different tissues inside the small intestine. Adhesions can form due to previous surgeries, infection, or inflammation and can cause blockages leading to pain, nausea, vomiting, and other symptoms.
When these adhesions cannot be resolved using non-surgical interventions, surgical lysis is done. The open approach is used when laparoscopic procedures are not possible due to technical difficulties, extensive scarring, or other medical reasons.
This surgical technique involves making a large incision in the abdomen, allowing the surgeon to have full access to the small intestine. After the procedure, patients are observed for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or wound healing problems. Proper coding of the procedure is crucial for proper billing and documentation purposes.
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Ms. Johnson becomes pregnant with her first child. Remember, she is type B POS. The biological father's type is O POS. Regarding ABO types, which type(s) would NOT BE RULED OUT.as possible ABO types for their biological child? I.e., which types WOULD be possible for their biological child?
Regarding ABO types, the following types would not be ruled out as possible ABO types for their biological child:
i) AB POS
ii) A POS
iii) O POS - if mother is homozygous
Possible ABO types for the biological child of Ms. Johnson (type B POS) and a father of O POS (OO) are as follows:
i) B POS
ii) O POS - if mother is heterozygous
Possible ABO types for the biological child of Ms. Johnson (type B POS) and a father of O POS (OO) are as follows:
1. Type B blood is possible if the father donates the O allele and the mother donates the B allele.
2. O blood type is possible if the father donates the O allele and the mother donates the O allele from heterozygous alleles.
Non - posssible ABO types for the biological child of Ms. Johnson (type B POS) and a father of O POS (OO) are as follows:
1. AB blood type is not possible because both parents must donate the A and B alleles, and the father is an O blood type carrier, so the father cannot contribute to this type.
2. Type A blood would not be possible as the father or mother does not have the A allele.
3. O blood type is not possible if the father donates the O allele and the mother donates the B allele, as mother is homozygous to B.
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The characteristics of distal limb sensory disturbance in Guillain Barre syndrome is
a) Sensory and motor disorders are severe
b) Sensory disorders are more severe in the proximal than in the distal
c)Sensory disturbance only
d) Obvious pain
e) Sensory disturbance is lighter than motor disturbance
In Guillain-Barré syndrome, sensory disturbances commonly accompany motor dysfunction. Sensory disorders are generally milder than motor deficits, and the severity and distribution of sensory symptoms can vary among individuals.
a) Sensory and motor disorders are severe: GBS typically manifests as a combination of sensory and motor deficits. Both sensory and motor symptoms can be severe, although the severity can vary from patient to patient.\
b) Sensory disorders are more severe in the proximal than in the distal: GBS often exhibits a pattern of ascending paralysis, meaning that symptoms typically begin in the distal limbs (hands and feet) and progress upwards towards the trunk.
While motor deficits may be more prominent in the distal limbs, sensory disturbances can also be present. However, the severity of sensory disturbances may be relatively less pronounced compared to motor deficits.
c) Sensory disturbance only: GBS is primarily characterized by motor dysfunction, but sensory abnormalities can also occur.
While sensory disturbances alone are less common, some patients may experience isolated sensory symptoms without significant motor impairment. However, this is not the typical presentation of GBS.
d) Obvious pain: Pain is a frequent symptom of GBS, and it can be experienced as a burning, tingling, or aching sensation.
The pain can be quite intense and may be more prominent in the affected limbs. However, the presence of pain alone does not necessarily indicate the severity of sensory disturbance.
e) Sensory disturbance is lighter than motor disturbance: In general, the sensory disturbances in GBS are milder compared to motor deficits. Motor dysfunction, such as muscle weakness and paralysis, tends to be more pronounced and debilitating.
However, the degree of sensory involvement can vary among individuals, and some patients may experience more severe sensory symptoms relative to their motor impairments.
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Scenario: A female patient came in the emergency room due to abdominal pain. To come up with an sound clinical judgment regarding patient condition, what information would you need to ask (at least 2) and why. Your answer
To come up with a sound clinical judgment regarding the female patient's abdominal pain, it is crucial to inquire about the location and severity of the pain as well as gather information about her medical history and relevant symptoms.
1. Location and Severity of Abdominal Pain:
Knowing the specific location of the pain (e.g., upper, lower, right or left side) provides insights into potential underlying causes. It helps identify if the pain is localized to a specific organ or if it is diffuse. Additionally, understanding the severity of the pain (e.g., mild, moderate, severe) aids in assessing the urgency and potential impact on the patient's condition.
2. Medical History and Relevant Symptoms:
Inquiring about the patient's medical history is crucial to identify any previous abdominal issues or chronic conditions that might contribute to the current symptoms. This information helps in evaluating the patient's overall health and identifying risk factors for specific conditions. Asking about accompanying symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, fever, changes in bowel movements, or urinary symptoms, provides important clues to narrow down potential diagnoses and guide the initial evaluation.
By gathering these details, healthcare professionals can develop a more comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition, make informed clinical judgments, and determine appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.
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what type of questions do you think the staff are going to ask
the patient who is having chest discomfort in cardiac rehab?
The staff is going to ask the patient who is having chest discomfort in cardiac rehab to answer a few questions to determine the cause of discomfort. They will ask the patient about the symptoms, history, and other factors that can contribute to chest discomfort.
The staff will ask the patient about the duration of the chest discomfort, and whether it is accompanied by other symptoms like shortness of breath, nausea, sweating, or lightheadedness. They will also ask the patient about their medical history, including any past heart problems, high blood pressure, cholesterol levels, or diabetes.
The staff may also ask about the patient's lifestyle habits like smoking, drinking, or drug use, as these can increase the risk of heart problems.
Additionally, they may ask about the patient's diet and exercise habits to understand how they can be modified to reduce the risk of further chest discomfort. The staff may conduct tests like electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, or stress test to further diagnose the cause of chest discomfort. Overall, the staff will ask a range of questions to diagnose the cause of chest discomfort and develop a personalized treatment plan for the patient.
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Identify the principles of scientific communication.
Explain the ethical implications in human research as it applies to the allied health care professional.
Analyze the ethical issues around communication when conducting research in the allied health care field.
Describe how you would communicate effectively and appropriately with patients, families, and health care providers within the scope of practice.
Explain how you would demonstrate effective skills in writing formal correspondence to communicate information and ideas.
Communication in human research has significant ethical implications, such as informed consent, respect for autonomy, confidentiality, and protection from harm.
Human research involves the use of human subjects to study diseases, treatments, and health outcomes. The allied healthcare professional's ethical obligation is to conduct research with integrity, honesty, and accountability. Ethical concerns in human research include informed consent, respect for autonomy, confidentiality, and protection from harm. When conducting research, communication is vital to ensure transparency and minimize risks.
Effective communication must be honest, respectful, and culturally sensitive to facilitate informed consent and participation. Within the scope of practice, effective communication involves listening actively, providing clear instructions, and being empathetic to patients' needs. Health care professionals must communicate complex medical information in an understandable format to patients and their families.
In formal correspondence, effective communication involves using plain language, organizing ideas logically, and being concise and clear. Health care professionals must ensure their writing complies with ethical standards and professional guidelines to communicate information effectively.
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1. MD ordered Compazine 25mg. IM PRN. Available Compazine 10mg/ml. How many ml. would you give? 2 MD ordered Lasix 25mg. IV. Available Lasix 50mg/5ml. How many ml. would you give?
1. You would give 2.5 ml of Compazine.
2. You would give 2.5 ml of Lasix.
1. To determine the amount of Compazine in milliliters (ml) to give, you need to calculate the dosage based on the available concentration.
Given:
MD ordered Compazine 25mg IM PRN
Available Compazine 10mg/ml
To find the required ml, divide the ordered dosage (25mg) by the concentration (10mg/ml):
25mg / 10mg/ml = 2.5 ml
Therefore, you would give 2.5 ml of Compazine.
2. To determine the amount of Lasix in milliliters (ml) to give, you need to calculate the dosage based on the available concentration.
Given:
MD ordered Lasix 25mg IV
Available Lasix 50mg/5ml
To find the required ml, first calculate the ratio of the ordered dosage to the concentration:
25mg / 50mg = 0.5
Next, multiply the ratio by the volume corresponding to the concentration:
0.5 * 5ml = 2.5 ml
Therefore, you would give 2.5 ml of Lasix.
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Discuss in detail: what is the ceiling effect? Which patients
may be susceptible to the ceiling effect?
The ceiling effect refers to a phenomenon where a drug or treatment reaches its maximum efficacy or response, beyond which further increases in dosage or treatment intensity do not result in additional benefits.
Certain patients may be susceptible to the ceiling effect, particularly those who have already achieved the maximum therapeutic response or have a condition that limits the potential benefits of the treatment.
Patients who have already reached the upper limit of their physiological capacity to respond to a drug or treatment may experience the ceiling effect.
Additionally, patients with severe or advanced stages of a disease may have compromised organ function or irreversible damage, making them less responsive to treatment and more likely to reach the ceiling effect earlier.
For example, in pain management, opioids such as morphine have a ceiling effect. Increasing the dosage beyond a certain point does not provide additional pain relief but can lead to increased side effects and potential risks.
Patients who have already reached the maximum pain relief achievable with a particular opioid may be susceptible to the ceiling effect. Similarly, in some antihypertensive medications, further increasing the dosage may not result in a significant reduction in blood pressure for patients who have already reached their individual physiological limit for response.
Identifying the presence of a ceiling effect is crucial in healthcare, as it helps determine the optimal dosing or treatment strategy for patients.
Understanding the ceiling effect can guide healthcare providers in selecting alternative therapies or combination approaches when a treatment reaches its maximum benefit, ensuring that patients receive the most effective and appropriate care.
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Patients in the chronic phase of SCI are likely to
experience:
B. Decreased fat mass
A. Increased energy needs
C. Decreased lean body"
Patients in the chronic phase of Spinal Cord Injury (SCI) are likely to experience decreased fat mass and decreased lean body. However, there may be an increase in energy needs for these patients.
There are two types of spinal cord injuries, complete and incomplete. A complete spinal cord injury is when there is a total loss of all motor and sensory function below the level of injury. On the other hand, an incomplete spinal cord injury is when there is some level of function below the level of injury. A person with SCI may have to deal with lifelong complications.
A person in the chronic phase of spinal cord injury is more likely to experience complications such as bladder infections, kidney stones, urinary tract infections, pressure sores, respiratory infections, pneumonia, and more. The muscle mass may decline, and there may be an increase in body fat due to a decrease in activity and metabolism. This is why it is essential to maintain a healthy weight by eating healthy and balanced diets and engaging in physical activity regularly.
Overall, it is essential to monitor patients with SCI for the development of complications and to manage these complications appropriately. A team of healthcare professionals should be involved in their care to ensure that they maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid further complications.
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Rosiane is a 50-year-old Rwandan woman (born in the month of May) who arrived in Australia 18 years ago as refugee. She arrived with her husband (Lonji) and their 3 daughters (aged 12, 10 and 8 years) as refugees from Cogo where they had fled following The Rwandan crisis in 1994.
They have settled well into Australian life; their family has been very important to them and has now grown to include 2 grandchildren with another grandchild due in 6 months’ time
Rosiane and Lonji are practising Muslim’s (Sunni) and are both very active in the local African community. Rosiane is currently working 4 days per week in Lonji’s Home Cleaning business to help meet their financial needs however this has become increasingly challenging for her as she has recently become unwell.
She presented to her GP, Dr White, 2 months ago with increasing fatigue, shortness of breath, mild confusion and hardening of the Right Breast with ‘peau d’orange’ (orange dimpling) causing pain and discomfort in her breast.
Dr White referred Rosiane to Mr Sheal, a Surgical Oncologist who completed a full physical examination and undertook the following investigations:
R) Breast ultrasound
R breast fine needle biopsy
Sentinel lymph node biopsy
CBC, LFT, GFR, HBV, HCV
IHC test (ImmunoHistoChemistry) for HER2 Gene
MRI L) and R) Breast, Chest and Head
Chest X-ray
On review of all the findings Mr Sheal confirms that Rosiane has stage 4 Advanced R) Breast Cancer with lymph, lung + brain metastases. Mr Sheal discusses the diagnosis with Rosiane and Lonji and explains that approaches to treatment were now not curable but rather palliative in intent.
You are the GP Practice nurse assisting Rosiane through these early stages of diagnosis and follow-up tests.
QUESTION 1: Discuss four (4) key elements of a ‘palliative approach to care’ in relation to Rosiane.
QUESTION 2: Describe how you would complete a holistic assessment on Rosiane?
Question 1: Four essential elements of a 'palliative approach to care' in relation to Rosiane are provided below: The main aim of palliative care is to alleviate the suffering that Rosiane is currently experiencing in conjunction with cancer treatment.
It is a multidisciplinary approach that takes into account the patient's social, psychological, and religious needs, as well as her medical needs. Palliative treatment is available to anyone with a life-limiting illness, regardless of their age, race, or creed. This type of care seeks to achieve a comfortable and dignified life for Rosiane, with symptom control as its main objective. Finally, palliative care is used to support family and friends as they care for Rosiane.
It will make a substantial difference in the quality of life for Rosiane as well as her family. Question 2To complete a holistic assessment on Rosiane, the nurse should take the following steps:
First and foremost, assess Rosiane's current situation, which includes her physical, emotional, and mental states. Examine her general health, including her vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature), level of pain, and any other symptoms she is experiencing. Check Rosiane's medical history, including her current medications and allergies, as well as her social and spiritual history.
Check for any environmental hazards in her home and encourage her to seek assistance from her friends and family members. Finally, provide support and guidance to Rosiane's family members and refer them to counselling or support services if required.
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True or False
1-postural stress ,Forceful exertions ,Repetitive exertions are examples of organizational risk factors.
2-sustained (static)exertions ,Localized mechanical (contact) stresses are example of environmental risk factor .
3-while muscular working consist of information and dynamic working ,Mental working consist of static and creative working .
4-Vibration and cold temperature are examples of occuptional risk factors.
5-Strain is an injury to a ligament .
6-All risk factors can be eliminated
7-Fatigue increases your risk of injury
8-Ergonomicsstudy human characteristics for the appropriate design of the living and work environment .
9-Antropometrics is concerned with the size and proportions of the human bod .
The statements are either underlined as false or true as shown:
1- False.
2- False.
3- False.
4- True. .
5- True.
6- False.
7. True
8- True.
9- True.
How do we explain?Fatigue can impair physical and cognitive abilities, increasing the risk of injury hence the statement is true.
Ergonomics is described as the study of human characteristics, capabilities, and limitations, and it aims to design the living and work environment to optimize human well-being and performance.
The statement is true
Anthropometrics is defined as a concept that is concerned with the measurement and study of the size, proportions, and physical characteristics of the human body.
The statement is true.
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Consider the various emotions and feelings the patient may be experiencing (ex. Fear, despair, anger, hopelessness, etc.). One of the greatest traits that a nurse has is the ability to provide empathetic care. As an aspiring registered nurse how do you prepare to engage in this plethora of emotions? Discuss a patient interaction in which you may have encountered such an occurrence. Support your findings with spiritual passages.
250 words
As an aspiring registered nurse, to engage in the plethora of emotions a patient might experience, one needs to prepare by having emotional intelligence, empathy, self-awareness, cultural competency, and excellent communication skills.
These traits would help to provide the best emotional care to the patient, to build trust and rapport with them, and to meet their needs. It's essential to understand the emotional state of a patient, which can help to build rapport and provide better care.
Empathetic care is a way of caring that puts the patient's emotions first and builds a connection of trust and respect between the healthcare professional and the patient.
Empathy is the ability to perceive and understand another person's feelings, needs, and emotions and is an essential aspect of patient-centered care. One way of developing empathy is through active listening and being present in the moment.
A patient interaction that required empathetic care may be a patient with a chronic illness or a terminal illness. This situation could lead to fear, despair, hopelessness, or anger. In such a scenario, as an aspiring registered nurse, I would first seek to connect with the patient emotionally, providing reassurance, and emphasizing the importance of hope and faith in the face of adversity.
I would also acknowledge the patient's feelings, listen actively to their story, and understand their perspective. This would help to build rapport with the patient and improve the patient-nurse relationship.
As a Christian nurse, I would draw inspiration from various spiritual passages, such as "Come to me, all you who are weary and burdened, and I will give you rest" (Matthew 11:28). This passage would help to remind me of the power of faith in times of struggle. Another passage that would help me is "Do not be anxious about anything, but in every situation, by prayer and petition, with thanksgiving, present your requests to God" (Philippians 4:6).This passage would help me to have a positive attitude and focus on the patient's needs.
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pleas put them in alphabetical order
1 Brother Flaherty
2 Brother William Flaherty
3 Claude de Monet
4 Eileen Chan
5 Joel L. Carson
6 Jean Marie D'Andre
7 Jean M. D'Andre
8 Jeanne D'Andre
9 JL. Carson,Jr. 10 JR. Light, Jr. 11 J.R.Light, Sr.
12 Sharon Saint-Jameson 13 Sumio Kumuro 14 S. K. Komuro 15 Sister Margaret Riley
In alphabetical order, the given terms are:
1. Brother Flaherty
2. Brother William Flaherty
3. Claude de Monet
4. Eileen Chan
5. Jean Marie D'Andre
6. Jean M. D'Andre
7. Jeanne D'Andre
8. JL. Carson, Jr.
9. JR. Light, Jr.
10. J.R. Light, Sr.
11. Sharon Saint-Jameson
12. Sister Margaret Riley
13. Sumio Kumuro
14. S. K. Komuro
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In alphabetical order, the given terms are:
1. Brother Flaherty
2. Brother William Flaherty
3. Claude de Monet
4. Eileen Chan
5. Jean Marie D'Andre
6. Jean M. D'Andre
7. Jeanne D'Andre
8. JL. Carson, Jr.
9. JR. Light, Jr.
10. J.R. Light, Sr.
11. Sharon Saint-Jameson
12. Sister Margaret Riley
13. Sumio Kumuro
14. S. K. Komuro
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