The task that the charge nurse should give the nurse assistant are options B, C and D.
Who is a nursing assistant?A nurse assistant is an individual who may be licensed or unlicensed but can assist the nurse in carrying out some procedures in the hospital.
If the nurse assistant is unlicensed, they are not allowed to dispense or refill drugs or fluids.
Therefore, the tasks that the charge nurse can allow the nurse assistant to participate are:
To Empty and record the amount of urine out of Foley bags at the end of each shift.,To Assist with delivering breakfast trays to clients after checking for correct patient, room number, and diet.,To Take and record temperatures, pulses, respirations, and blood pressures on all assigned patients.Learn more about nurse assistant here:
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Complete question;
A charge nurse is planning client activities for the day. Which tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the nursing assistant? (Select all that apply.)
Restock pediatric patient care rooms with oral rehydration fluids using a standardized check list.,
Empty and record the amount of urine out of Foley bags at the end of each shift.,
Assist with delivering breakfast trays to clients after checking for correct patient, room number, and diet.,
Take and record temperatures, pulses, respirations, and blood pressures on all assigned patients.
A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through.
A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through conjugation.
What is gram-positive bacterium?Gram-positive bacteria are bacteria that classified by the color they take up in the staining method or give a positive result in the Gram stain test, which is traditionally used to classify bacteria into two broad categories according to their type of cell wall.
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a woman with a long history of essential hypertension is managed throughout her pregnancy and delivers today. the hypertension has not resolved after the delivery. how is this coded?
The pregnancy and delivery of a woman with a lengthy history of essential hypertension were handled. After delivery, the hypertension has not subsided. How has this been coded?
What is hypertension?
High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is a frequent illness where the blood's long-term push against your artery walls is so great that it may eventually result in health issues including heart disease.
The case will be coded as O10.03. This is so because it's important to know whether the hypertension is because of pregnancy or a preexisting condition. Here it's a preexisting condition.
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What would the nurse expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a client diagnosed with pleuritis?.
When auscultating the lungs of a client diagnosed with pleuritis, the nurse would expect to hear a friction rub. The correct option is A.
What is friction rub?When the inflamed pleural surfaces rub together during breathing, a harsh, grating sound is produced.
This sound is often described as a rubbing, grating, or creaking noise and can be heard during both inspiration and expiration.
In contrast, stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during inspiration and may indicate an upper airway obstruction, whereas decreased breath sounds may indicate lung collapse or consolidation.
As a result, in a client with pleuritis, the nurse would expect to hear a friction rub rather than stridor or decreased breath sounds.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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a 50-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of not being able to see well. he is not on any medications. he has a 60 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. past medical and surgical history are otherwise unremarkable; he does not take any medications. on examination of his right eye, both ptosis and miosis are noted. a chest x-ray shows a rounded opacity in the right lung field.
The most likely diagnosis is Horner Syndrome.
Due to a disruption in the sympathetic nerve supply, Horner syndrome is an uncommon disorder that typically manifests as partial ptosis (drooping or falling of the upper eyelid), miosis (constricted pupil), and face anhidrosis (lack of sweating). However, there have been a few rare instances of congenital types of Horner syndrome, which are typically acquired after injury to the sympathetic nerve supply.
Damage to a specific sympathetic nervous system circuit results in Horner syndrome. The sympathetic nervous system controls your heart rate, breathing, sweating, blood pressure, and other bodily processes that let you react swiftly to environmental changes. Smaller pupils, drooping eyelids, and little to no perspiration on the affected side are all symptoms.
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the hospital management is planning a study that compares the benefits and harms of a particular method to the benefits and harms of alternative methods when treating clients with chronic disorders. which approach does the nurse manager follow to improve client care?
The approach should be Comparative effectiveness research (CER) to improve the client care.
CER is the creation and synthesis of data that contrasts the advantages and disadvantages of various approaches for the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of a clinical disease or for enhancing the provision of healthcare.
The process through which innovations spread across society at various phases of choice, implementation, and confirmation is known as diffusion of innovations. PBE is a research approach that looks at results in the real world to assist influence practice decisions.
In PAR, the participants in the community being researched are active participants in the research team and are involved in formulating the study project's questions and addressing its problems.
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ms. jones is complaining of nausea and ruq pain. which set of labs would the nurse expect the provider to order based on her symptoms?
The nurse expects the provider to order aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) tests for Ms. Jones, who is complaining of nausea and RUQ pain.
The symptoms of possible liver/hepatic involvement include nausea and RUQ pain. The indicators of liver health include aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) tests. The provider measures renal functioning using 24-hour urine collection, uric acid, creatinine, and BUN.
Hematologic status is assessed by the complete blood count (CBC), platelet count, and fibrinogen levels. Although measurements of liver function are an immediate response to the patient's complaint of RUQ pain, all these parameters may be monitored throughout time.
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a client is started on aripiprazole and the nurse notices the client is experiencing dry mouth and nasal congestion. what intervention does the nurse teach the client to minimize the side effects of the medication?
Drinking frequent sips of water is the intervention does the nurse teach the client to minimize the side effects of the aripiprazole medication.
Aripiprazole is a drug used to treat schizophrenia that acts on the brain. It is often referred to as an atypical antipsychotic or a second generation antipsychotic (SGA). Dopamine and serotonin are rebalanced by aripiprazole to enhance cognition, mood, and behavior.
A medication may have side effects in addition to the ones that are intended. Even though not all of these adverse effects are likely to occur, if they do, medical treatment may be required. If any of the following side effects persist, are troublesome, or if you have any questions about them, speak with your doctor:
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a nurse recommends that a client come back once every 3 months in the coming year to have his cholesterol checked, to make sure he is maintaining a healthy level. which type of assessment is the nurse proposing?
Ongoing or partial is the type of assessment the nurse is proposing when the nurse recommends that a client come back once every 3 months in the coming year to have his cholesterol checked, to make sure he is maintaining a healthy level.
Partial assessment is a short version of comprehensive health assessment that includes review of at least one body system, nursing diagnosis etc.
Cholesterol is a waxy substance found in your blood. Your body needs cholesterol to build healthy cells, but high levels of cholesterol can increase your risk of heart disease. High cholesterol leads to development of fatty deposits in the blood vessel.
The normal range for cholesterol levels is less than 200 mg/dL. A few signs for high level of cholesterol are nausea, numbness, extreme fatigue, angina etc. A few exercises which help lower cholesterol levels are walking, running, cycling, and swimming.
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Think about the action of the muscles you have built on your maniken. Describe specific motions that you would not be able to complete if you damaged your temporalis, your orbicularis oculi or your orbicularis oris. How would this affect your ability to communicate?.
If you damage your temporalis and orbicularis oculi, it would be difficult for you to perform mouth activities like eating or speaking.
The temporalis is a muscle located on the temporal bone on the side of the skull. While the orbicularis oculi is the muscle located in the eyelids. The primary function of temporalis and orbicularis oculi include the closing of the mouth and eyelids respectively.
If the temporalis is damaged, it would be difficult to perform any mouth movements. It would become difficult for you to open and close your mouth. You may even feel difficulty in speaking. Also, your ability to chew and eat food would be affected.
If you damage your orbicularis oculi, movements like winking or blinking would be affected. We use our orbicularis oculi in our daily life to express many emotions by using our eyelids. if it would be damaged, our facial expressions and non-verbal communication skills would be affected. It also helps us to protect our eyes from dust and other unwanted particles, which would be made difficult after any damage.
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the diagnosis of hypoglycemia is confirmed by the characteristics of whipple's triad. this triad includes all of the following except:
Whipple's triad—symptomatic hypoglycemia, plasma glucose concentration 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/l), and remission of those symptoms after raising plasma glucose concentration—is used to make a clinical diagnosis of symptomatic hypoglycemia.
Why is plasma used?Following the removal of red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and other biological components, plasma is the clear, straw-colored liquid portion of blood that is still present. It makes up around 55 percent of human blood and is made up of proteins, salts, enzymes, and water. It also contains antibodies and other proteins.
How is plasma made?When one or more electrons are ripped off an atom, a plasma is formed. An ionized atom may have a few (or perhaps one) missing electrons or it may have had all of its electrons removed, leaving only the atomic nucleus (of one or more protons and usually some neutrons).
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the nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community. which aspect is this addressing
The nurse is comparing the clinical judgment model (cjm) in patients in an acute care setting with those in the community which means she is addressing the reflecting aspect.
What is Clinical judgment model?This type of model is used as a template to determine or measure clinical judgment and decision in the case of a standard examination. This comprises of four steps which include:
NoticingInterpretingRespondingReflectingThe reflecting aspect involves the nurses confirming evidences through comparing different forms of techniques used for different scenario. This helps to determine if their actions have been giving rise to the expected results.
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in the context of the dose-response relationship of smoking and pregnancy, the diminished growth rate observed in the fetus of smoking women is attributed to the
With regards to the dose-response relationship of smoking and pregnancy, the less development rate seen in the fetus of smoking ladies is attributed to the diminished availability of oxygen.
What does smoking do to a pregnant women?Pregnant ladies who smoke pass nicotine and carbon monoxide to their developing children.Smoking increases your risk of unusual bleeding during pregnancy and at the time of delivery.This can seriously endanger both you and your child. Smoking raises your child's chances of being born with birth defects like lip cleft.In the event of pregnancy, each time you smokes a cigarette, it diminishes oxygen to your unborn child (fetus) and opens them to numerous harmful gases.Assuming you smoke during pregnancy, you are bound to conceive a baby early (premature baby).Premature children can have low birth weight and have problems with breathing, issues in vision and hearing.Smoking during pregnancy can harm tissues in the unborn child, mainly in the lungs and brain.Smoking while being pregnant puts you at greater risk of a large number of issues like miscarriage, bleeding, etc.Learn more about the effects of smoking here:
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a patient is being prepared for surgery. the nurse receives the following order of atropine sulfate 0.4 mg im pre-op. the medication is supplied in 0.8 mg per milliliter. the nurse is correct when he prepares how many milliliters of the medication
The nurse should prepare to administer 0.5 mL of atropine sulfate before surgery.
Why is atropine sulfate used?Atropine sulfate is utilized to hinder nerve stimulation of muscles and organs and loosen up smooth muscles.Atropine sulfate eye drops is utilized to widen the pupil before eye tests. It is additionally used to treat an eye condition called amblyopia.This drug is utilized before eye assessments (like refraction) and to treat specific eye conditions (like uveitis, cycloplegia).The medication atropine can likewise be utilized to treat the side effects of low pulse (bradycardia), diminish salivation and bronchial secretions before medical procedure or as a cure for excess of cholinergic medications or mushroom poison.Learn more about atropine sulfate here:
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E. P. Suffered from an illness that damaged his _____. After the brain damage, e. P. Has no problems performing well on tests of working memory, can carry on a conversation without difficulty, and can retrieve memories from before his illness. However, if you ask him at dinner what he ate for lunch he will have no idea.
EP suffered from an illness that damaged his hippocampus.
In the above statement, a man named E.P is being talked about.
EP. was an 84-year-old retired lab technician who had lost his ability to create memories due to an illness that damaged the parts of the brain responsible for converting short-term memories into long-term memories.
The hippocampus is a part of the brain that converts our perceptions into long-term memories.
If this part is damaged due to any reason, the person suffers from amnesia and loses the ability to create new memories.
Hence, E.P. suffered from an illness that damaged his hippocampus.
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the spouse of a recently deceased client states, "i just can't believe he left me. he swore he would never leave me and i feel betrayed!" using kübler-ross stages of grief, what stage does the nurse identify the client is experiencing?
The client is experiencing the stage of Anger.
Anger is a feeling that is defined by hostility toward someone or something that you believe has intentionally wronged you. Anger has its benefits. For instance, it could give you a way to vent negative feelings or motivate you to look for solutions to problems. But unchecked rage might cause problems.
One of the biggest causes of anger is the environment. Stress, financial difficulties, abuse, poor social or familial circumstances, and excessive demands on your time and energy can all lead to anger. Anger management is a psychotherapy strategy for suppressing and preventing wrath. It's been believed to be a productive way to channel anger. The causes of rage are frequently frustration or feeling hindered or stopped from doing something the individual feels is important.
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A patient expresses offense that you practice so many precautionary measures, including washing your hands and wearing protective gear. He asks why you treat patients as unclean. Your best response should be that:
A patient expresses offense that you practice so many precautionary measures and asks why you treat patients as unclean therefore the best response should be that serious communicable illnesses are spread by contact with blood borne and airborne pathogens, so precautions are necessary.
What is Precaution?This is referred to as a measure which is usually take to prevent something unpleasant or harmful from happening. This is common in the healthcare system as a result of it being the place where different illnesses are treated.
The patient may pathogens present in their body system which may be transmitted to the healthcare professionals if special care is not taken such as using personal protective equipment.
The response for the individual who asks why the patients are treated as being unclean is that serious communicable illnesses are spread by contact with blood borne and airborne pathogens, so precautions are necessary.
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cohen ls, altshuler ll, harlow bl, nonacs r, newport dj, viguera ac, et al. relapse of major depression during pregnancy in women who maintain or discontinue antidepressant treatment [published erratum appears in jama 2006;296:170]. jama 2006;295:499–507. (level ii-2)
Antidepressant therapy is typically advised to be continued for at least 6 months after you start to feel better in order to prevent a relapse after stopping. It is suggested that some patients with recurring disease continue taking medication forever.
What is Antidepressant Treatment ?Major depressive illness, some anxiety disorders, some chronic pain conditions, and some addictions are all treated with antidepressants. Dry mouth, weight gain, wooziness, headaches, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting are typical adverse effects of antidepressants.
How well do antidepressants work?People who suffer from moderate to severe depression may find relief from antidepressants. They are the best option for symptom relief that occurs immediately, especially in cases of severe depression.
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a client is newly diagnosed with hodgkin lymphoma. the nurse understands that the client's treatment will be based on what concept?
The client's neck has swollen lymph nodes.
Hodgkin lymphoma lymph node enlargement is not painful. If the swollen nodes are unpleasant, Hodgkin lymphoma is most likely the cause of the client's enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. A sore throat is not a symptom of this condition.The findings of your tests are used by your medical team to stage your Hodgkin's lymphoma. Understanding your condition's severity and figuring out which treatments are most likely to help you depends on its stage.The stages of Hodgkin's lymphoma are denoted by the numbers 1 through 4. A lower number denotes a cancer that is more likely to be cured because it is in an earlier stage. The bigger the number, the more advanced the cancer is.Swollen lymph nodes indicate Hodgkin lymphoma.
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a community nurse is making a home visit to an elderly, depressed client. during the assessment, the client experiences periods of silence. what would be the appropriate nursing response during these periods of silence?
An appropriate response which a nurse can give to a client during these periods of silence due to depression is to passionately demonstrate love to client by putting forward any action to distract the client and make the client happy
As healthcare provider, it is our responsibility to recognize and understand every mood our clients find themselves. Some of these depressed conditions could be as a result of the shocking news they received about their health condition as whether it can be managed or not over even as a result of loneliness without having people around the to care for them.
Nursing careNursing simply refers to those efforts made by nurses to improve the health conditions of clients and help them also fit psychologically.
So therefore, a community nurse is making a home visit to an elderly, depressed client. during the assessment, the client experiences periods of silence. what would be the appropriate nursing response during these periods of silence
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individuals with asplenia are missing their spleen or have a spleen that doesn't function well. why is it recommended that these patients talk to their doctor about vaccines that are indicated for their health?
For those who have long-term medical issues such asplenia, vaccinations are very important.
There is a lifelong increase in the chance of developing life-threatening infections after splenectomy.Despite the extremely low danger (less than 1%), you can take the following precautions to safeguard your health:Vaccinate yourself.Record every vaccination you receive. Make sure each healthcare practitioner is aware if you have more than one. Inform your primary care physician of any illness as soon as possible.Wear a medical alert bracelet or keep a medical alert card that shows you've had your spleen removed with you at all times.Inform your primary care doctor that you don't have a spleen.Immediately inform your primary care provider of any fever or illness.Take antibiotics before and within 24 hours of any invasive medical procedure, including surgery, catheterization, and endoscopy.So, it is important for asplenic individuals to consult a doctor before getting vaccinated.
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the nurse is caring for a client following a thoracotomy. which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Nurse is caring for a client following a thoracotomy. Finding that requires immediate intervention by the nurse:
Chest tube drainage, 190 mL/hr
Explanation:
What is thoracotomy surgery?
Thoracotomy is a surgical procedure in which a cut is made between the rib bones to access the organs inside the chest. These organs include the heart, windpipe (trachea), lungs, and food pipe (oesophagus).
Thoracotomy findings:
Moderate amounts of colorless sputum
Chest tube drainage, 190 mL/hr
Heart rate, 112 bpm
Pain of 5 on a 1-to-10 scale
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client with vascular dementia (formerly known as multiinfarct dementia) has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia of the alzheimer type. what characteristics unique to vascular dementia should the nurse expect when assessing a client with this diagnosis? select all that apply.
client with vascular dementia (formerly known as multiinfarct dementia) has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia of the alzheimer type the nurse should Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes and Episodic progression of symptoms.
What ia vascular dementia ?Vascular dementia is a term that broadly refers to issues with reasoning, planning, judgment, memory, and other thought processes that are brought on by brain damage from decreased blood supply to your brain. Strokes don't necessarily result in vascular dementia, but they can lead to it if a stroke clogs an artery in the brain.
Effect :Multiple strokes that cause brain damage.
Memory loss affects older persons with vascular dementia, especially those with diabetes or obesity who are at higher risk of stroke.
Early on, the illness impairs one's ability to reason and make decisions. Later phases have an impact on memory.
Disease development can be slowed by addressing factors that affect heart health. Drugs for Alzheimer's may aid in managing cognitive symptoms.
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I understand the question you are looking for :
A client with vascular dementia (formerly known as multiinfarct dementia) has signs and symptoms that are different from dementia of the Alzheimer type. What characteristics unique to vascular dementia should the nurse expect when assessing a client with this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
1 Memory impairment
2 Failure to identify objects
3 Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
4 Episodic progression of symptoms
5 Inability to use words to communicate
use of an intraarticular injection directly into a joint with an anti-inflammatory medication is ideal because the drug will not be answer absorbed but will act locally to decrease inflammation.
The missing word in the blank (answer) is "systemically". The drug will not be systematically absorbed but will act locally to decrease inflammation.
To treat pain, a shot called an intra-articular injection is sent directly into a joint. The most typical medications injected into joints for this therapy are hyaluronic acid, local anesthetics, corticosteroids (steroids), and Botox.
Since many years ago, patients with knee and hip OA have been treated with intra-articular corticosteroid injections, particularly those who cannot endure the adverse effects of long-term pharmacological therapy with acetaminophen and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medicines.
If your pain does not go away after trying conservative measures like painkillers, oral anti-inflammatory medicines, and physical therapy, your doctor may suggest a joint injection to you.
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the nurse is administering packed red blood cell (rbc) transfusions for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (mds). the patient has had several transfusions and is likely to receive several more. what is a priority for the nurse to monitor related to the transfusions?
The priority for the nurse for a patient being administered with packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusions with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who has had several transfusions and is likely to receive several more should be to monitor the iron levels.
RBCs are the most the blood cells that transport oxygen to the whole body. These cells are devoid of nucleus in order to accommodate the maximum number of oxygen atoms possible. The red color of the cell is due to the hemoglobin pigment.
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) is the one where the blood forming cells of bone marrow become low. This can affect the number of blood cells in a person's blood severely. MDS can be of several types and for some the causes are not even known.
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the nurse instructs a client to take the prescribed pravastatin at bedtime based on understanding that:
he nurse instructs a client to take the prescribed pravastatin at bedtime based on understanding that
GreatTer drug effectiveness is achieved at this time.
In order to raise "good" cholesterol (HDL) and lower "bad" cholesterol and fats (such as LDL and triglycerides) in the blood, pravastatin is used in conjunction with a healthy diet. It is a member of the class of medications known as "statins." It functions by reducing the quantity of cholesterol the liver produces. Raising "good" cholesterol while lowering "bad" cholesterol and triglycerides reduces the risk of heart disease and aids in the prevention of strokes and heart attacks. Exercise, weight loss if overweight, and quitting smoking are some lifestyle changes that may help this drug work better, in addition to eating a healthy diet (such as a low-cholesterol/low-fat diet).
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medical team conference, patient and/or family not present, 30 minutes or more participation by nonphysician qualified health care professional. assign the cpt code. |
Medical team conference, patient and/or family not present, 30 minutes or more participation by nonphysician qualified health care professional. The cpt code is 99368.
What is CPT code?• The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes can be used by physicians and other healthcare professionals to document medical services and procedures in order to streamline reporting, increase accuracy, and increase efficiency.
• Additionally, CPT codes are utilized for administrative management duties including handling insurance claims and developing guidelines for evaluating medical services.
• The CPT language is the most widely used in the country for reporting medical, surgical, radiological, laboratory, anesthesiology, genomic sequencing, and evaluation and management (E/M) services for public and private health insurance systems.
• The CPT Editorial Panel oversees a rigid, transparent, and cooperative methodology for the creation and administration of the CPT code set.
• This more than 50-year-old AMA-convened method ensures that clinically relevant codes are provided, updated, and maintained on a regular basis to appropriately represent present clinical practice and technological advancement in medicine.
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What is the most important way to prevent foodborne illnesses caused by viruses?.
Answer:
2 The most important way to prevent foodborne illnesses caused by viruses is to control time and temperature.
Explanation:
the impact of essential fatty acid, b vitamins, vitamin c, magnesium and zinc supplementation on stress levels in women: a systematic review
The current analysis reveals that, in the absence of depression, EFAs may be useful in lowering prenatal stress and salivary cortisol as well as anxiety during premenstrual syndrome and during menopause. Premenstrual tension may be reduced by magnesium and vitamin B6 together, while older women may have beneficial anxiety reduction with vitamin B6 alone.
Vitamin C with a high dosage and continuous release may lessen stress-related anxiety and lower blood pressure. This review comprised 14 papers in total. When depression was ignored, essential fatty acids failed to reduce perceived stress, salivary cortisol levels, anxiety in premenstrual women, anxiety following menopause, or anxiety during premenstrual syndrome.
EFAs were ineffectual in lowering stress or anxiety in four groups of women, regardless of the hormonal phase. Supplementing with magnesium and vitamin B6 together decreased premenstrual anxiety, however, neither vitamin alone nor combination had any impact on stress in women with dysmenorrhea. Vitamin B6 reduced anxiety in older women, but not folate or vitamin B12. In reaction to stress, high-dose sustained-release vitamin C proved beneficial in lowering blood pressure and anxiety.
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In the eyes of _____, society is a whole unit, made up of interrelated parts that work together.
In the eyes of ____, society is a whole unit, made up of interrelated parts that work together.
functionalists
a client has been prescribed a combination diuretic agent. the nurse knows that the major purpose of this combination is what?
To boost the effectiveness of a medicine or lessen the drug negative effects.
What is a combination of diuretic agent?The diuretic is less likely to have negative effects when taken with other medications. It also enhances the other drug's blood pressure-lowering impact.
Other blood pressure medicines are supplemented with diuretics. For instance, if the person with high blood pressure also retains fluid, a diuretic may be administered.
By lowering the osmotic equivalent of water in the kidney tubule and tubular reabsorption of Na+. Thus, they eliminate extra salt and water from the body during the procedure.
Therefore, a client has been prescribed a combination diuretic agent.
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